To show that $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$. [closed]












-1












$begingroup$


If $|f'(z)| < M$ for all $z$ on the segment joining complex numbers $z_1$ and $z_2$ then how can I show that $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$?










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$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler Jan 10 at 20:44


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Integrate $f'(z)$ over this segment.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 10 at 5:21










  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 10 at 18:50
















-1












$begingroup$


If $|f'(z)| < M$ for all $z$ on the segment joining complex numbers $z_1$ and $z_2$ then how can I show that $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler Jan 10 at 20:44


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Integrate $f'(z)$ over this segment.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 10 at 5:21










  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 10 at 18:50














-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$


If $|f'(z)| < M$ for all $z$ on the segment joining complex numbers $z_1$ and $z_2$ then how can I show that $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If $|f'(z)| < M$ for all $z$ on the segment joining complex numbers $z_1$ and $z_2$ then how can I show that $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$?







complex-analysis






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 10 at 5:59









El Pasta

46415




46415










asked Jan 10 at 5:19









user633319user633319

384




384




closed as off-topic by Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler Jan 10 at 20:44


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler Jan 10 at 20:44


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Did, amWhy, Lord_Farin, Chickenmancer, Hans Engler

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Integrate $f'(z)$ over this segment.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 10 at 5:21










  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 10 at 18:50














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Integrate $f'(z)$ over this segment.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 10 at 5:21










  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 10 at 18:50








3




3




$begingroup$
Integrate $f'(z)$ over this segment.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 10 at 5:21




$begingroup$
Integrate $f'(z)$ over this segment.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 10 at 5:21












$begingroup$
What have you tried so far?
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 10 at 18:50




$begingroup$
What have you tried so far?
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 10 at 18:50










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

$$(z-z_2)int_0^{1} f'(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt$$ $$=int_0^{1} frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt=f(z)-f(z_2)$$ which gives the inequality immediately.



[To see why the first equality holds write down $frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2)$ using chain rule].






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    -1












    $begingroup$

    You can directly think of the line segment as the real line(this is possible since a straight line in the complex plane is homeomorphic to the real line) with the usual order relation(with $z_1>z_2$) and then, by the fundamental theorem of calculus, you'll get



    $$|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|=|int_{z_2}^{z_1}f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}|f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}M=M(z_1-z_2)$$



    If the order of $z_1$ and $z_2$ were instead $z_2>z_1$, you'll get $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M(z_2-z_1)$ and hence,



    $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      What do you mean by $z_1 >z_2$? OP is talking about complex numbers.
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jan 10 at 6:34










    • $begingroup$
      This is because if you imbue the line segment with the subspace topology from the complex plane, the line would become the real line which has its own natural ordering, the only difference is that you would have the option of identifying it in two different ways which would give you either $z_1>z_2$ or $z_2>z_1$(of course $z_1neq z_2$ otherwise the proof is trivial.
      $endgroup$
      – Mustang
      Jan 10 at 6:41


















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    $$(z-z_2)int_0^{1} f'(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt$$ $$=int_0^{1} frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt=f(z)-f(z_2)$$ which gives the inequality immediately.



    [To see why the first equality holds write down $frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2)$ using chain rule].






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      $$(z-z_2)int_0^{1} f'(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt$$ $$=int_0^{1} frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt=f(z)-f(z_2)$$ which gives the inequality immediately.



      [To see why the first equality holds write down $frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2)$ using chain rule].






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        $$(z-z_2)int_0^{1} f'(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt$$ $$=int_0^{1} frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt=f(z)-f(z_2)$$ which gives the inequality immediately.



        [To see why the first equality holds write down $frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2)$ using chain rule].






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        $$(z-z_2)int_0^{1} f'(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt$$ $$=int_0^{1} frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2) dt=f(z)-f(z_2)$$ which gives the inequality immediately.



        [To see why the first equality holds write down $frac d {dt} f(tz+(1-t)z_2)$ using chain rule].







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 10 at 6:35

























        answered Jan 10 at 5:25









        Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

        54.5k32055




        54.5k32055























            -1












            $begingroup$

            You can directly think of the line segment as the real line(this is possible since a straight line in the complex plane is homeomorphic to the real line) with the usual order relation(with $z_1>z_2$) and then, by the fundamental theorem of calculus, you'll get



            $$|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|=|int_{z_2}^{z_1}f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}|f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}M=M(z_1-z_2)$$



            If the order of $z_1$ and $z_2$ were instead $z_2>z_1$, you'll get $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M(z_2-z_1)$ and hence,



            $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              What do you mean by $z_1 >z_2$? OP is talking about complex numbers.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Jan 10 at 6:34










            • $begingroup$
              This is because if you imbue the line segment with the subspace topology from the complex plane, the line would become the real line which has its own natural ordering, the only difference is that you would have the option of identifying it in two different ways which would give you either $z_1>z_2$ or $z_2>z_1$(of course $z_1neq z_2$ otherwise the proof is trivial.
              $endgroup$
              – Mustang
              Jan 10 at 6:41
















            -1












            $begingroup$

            You can directly think of the line segment as the real line(this is possible since a straight line in the complex plane is homeomorphic to the real line) with the usual order relation(with $z_1>z_2$) and then, by the fundamental theorem of calculus, you'll get



            $$|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|=|int_{z_2}^{z_1}f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}|f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}M=M(z_1-z_2)$$



            If the order of $z_1$ and $z_2$ were instead $z_2>z_1$, you'll get $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M(z_2-z_1)$ and hence,



            $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              What do you mean by $z_1 >z_2$? OP is talking about complex numbers.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Jan 10 at 6:34










            • $begingroup$
              This is because if you imbue the line segment with the subspace topology from the complex plane, the line would become the real line which has its own natural ordering, the only difference is that you would have the option of identifying it in two different ways which would give you either $z_1>z_2$ or $z_2>z_1$(of course $z_1neq z_2$ otherwise the proof is trivial.
              $endgroup$
              – Mustang
              Jan 10 at 6:41














            -1












            -1








            -1





            $begingroup$

            You can directly think of the line segment as the real line(this is possible since a straight line in the complex plane is homeomorphic to the real line) with the usual order relation(with $z_1>z_2$) and then, by the fundamental theorem of calculus, you'll get



            $$|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|=|int_{z_2}^{z_1}f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}|f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}M=M(z_1-z_2)$$



            If the order of $z_1$ and $z_2$ were instead $z_2>z_1$, you'll get $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M(z_2-z_1)$ and hence,



            $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            You can directly think of the line segment as the real line(this is possible since a straight line in the complex plane is homeomorphic to the real line) with the usual order relation(with $z_1>z_2$) and then, by the fundamental theorem of calculus, you'll get



            $$|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|=|int_{z_2}^{z_1}f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}|f'|leq int_{z_2}^{z_1}M=M(z_1-z_2)$$



            If the order of $z_1$ and $z_2$ were instead $z_2>z_1$, you'll get $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M(z_2-z_1)$ and hence,



            $|f(z_1)-f(z_2)|leq M|z_1-z_2|$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 10 at 6:18









            MustangMustang

            3427




            3427








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              What do you mean by $z_1 >z_2$? OP is talking about complex numbers.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Jan 10 at 6:34










            • $begingroup$
              This is because if you imbue the line segment with the subspace topology from the complex plane, the line would become the real line which has its own natural ordering, the only difference is that you would have the option of identifying it in two different ways which would give you either $z_1>z_2$ or $z_2>z_1$(of course $z_1neq z_2$ otherwise the proof is trivial.
              $endgroup$
              – Mustang
              Jan 10 at 6:41














            • 2




              $begingroup$
              What do you mean by $z_1 >z_2$? OP is talking about complex numbers.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Jan 10 at 6:34










            • $begingroup$
              This is because if you imbue the line segment with the subspace topology from the complex plane, the line would become the real line which has its own natural ordering, the only difference is that you would have the option of identifying it in two different ways which would give you either $z_1>z_2$ or $z_2>z_1$(of course $z_1neq z_2$ otherwise the proof is trivial.
              $endgroup$
              – Mustang
              Jan 10 at 6:41








            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            What do you mean by $z_1 >z_2$? OP is talking about complex numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 10 at 6:34




            $begingroup$
            What do you mean by $z_1 >z_2$? OP is talking about complex numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 10 at 6:34












            $begingroup$
            This is because if you imbue the line segment with the subspace topology from the complex plane, the line would become the real line which has its own natural ordering, the only difference is that you would have the option of identifying it in two different ways which would give you either $z_1>z_2$ or $z_2>z_1$(of course $z_1neq z_2$ otherwise the proof is trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – Mustang
            Jan 10 at 6:41




            $begingroup$
            This is because if you imbue the line segment with the subspace topology from the complex plane, the line would become the real line which has its own natural ordering, the only difference is that you would have the option of identifying it in two different ways which would give you either $z_1>z_2$ or $z_2>z_1$(of course $z_1neq z_2$ otherwise the proof is trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – Mustang
            Jan 10 at 6:41



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