Integral of a modulus function vs absolute value of definite integral
Please refer to the diagram below.
The diagram shows a curve with equation $y = cos {xover 2} cos x$, for 0 $le x$ $le$ $pi$, along with the $x$ and $y$-intercepts of the graph.
Question: By first finding $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, explain why $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ is smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$. You may refer to the graph provided for assistance.
I have found $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ and have done so as shown:
I then start to calculate $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ as shown below.
Now, I realise I would also end up calculating $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ eventually which implies that $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ = $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$? But the question has already stated that $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ will be smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, so I'm not really sure how to proceed from here...
calculus integration definite-integrals
add a comment |
Please refer to the diagram below.
The diagram shows a curve with equation $y = cos {xover 2} cos x$, for 0 $le x$ $le$ $pi$, along with the $x$ and $y$-intercepts of the graph.
Question: By first finding $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, explain why $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ is smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$. You may refer to the graph provided for assistance.
I have found $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ and have done so as shown:
I then start to calculate $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ as shown below.
Now, I realise I would also end up calculating $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ eventually which implies that $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ = $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$? But the question has already stated that $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ will be smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, so I'm not really sure how to proceed from here...
calculus integration definite-integrals
Think about the cancellation in the areas. Write the area above the $x$-axis as $A$ and the area below as $B$. Now, write the two integrals as sums and differences of $A$ and $B$.
– Michael Burr
Jan 2 '17 at 14:52
add a comment |
Please refer to the diagram below.
The diagram shows a curve with equation $y = cos {xover 2} cos x$, for 0 $le x$ $le$ $pi$, along with the $x$ and $y$-intercepts of the graph.
Question: By first finding $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, explain why $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ is smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$. You may refer to the graph provided for assistance.
I have found $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ and have done so as shown:
I then start to calculate $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ as shown below.
Now, I realise I would also end up calculating $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ eventually which implies that $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ = $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$? But the question has already stated that $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ will be smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, so I'm not really sure how to proceed from here...
calculus integration definite-integrals
Please refer to the diagram below.
The diagram shows a curve with equation $y = cos {xover 2} cos x$, for 0 $le x$ $le$ $pi$, along with the $x$ and $y$-intercepts of the graph.
Question: By first finding $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, explain why $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ is smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$. You may refer to the graph provided for assistance.
I have found $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ and have done so as shown:
I then start to calculate $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ as shown below.
Now, I realise I would also end up calculating $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ eventually which implies that $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$ = $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$? But the question has already stated that $vert int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} cos {xover 2} cos x ,dx vert$ will be smaller than $int_{piover 3}^{2piover 3} vert cos {xover 2} cos x vert,dx$, so I'm not really sure how to proceed from here...
calculus integration definite-integrals
calculus integration definite-integrals
asked Jan 2 '17 at 14:44
Charlz97Charlz97
12312
12312
Think about the cancellation in the areas. Write the area above the $x$-axis as $A$ and the area below as $B$. Now, write the two integrals as sums and differences of $A$ and $B$.
– Michael Burr
Jan 2 '17 at 14:52
add a comment |
Think about the cancellation in the areas. Write the area above the $x$-axis as $A$ and the area below as $B$. Now, write the two integrals as sums and differences of $A$ and $B$.
– Michael Burr
Jan 2 '17 at 14:52
Think about the cancellation in the areas. Write the area above the $x$-axis as $A$ and the area below as $B$. Now, write the two integrals as sums and differences of $A$ and $B$.
– Michael Burr
Jan 2 '17 at 14:52
Think about the cancellation in the areas. Write the area above the $x$-axis as $A$ and the area below as $B$. Now, write the two integrals as sums and differences of $A$ and $B$.
– Michael Burr
Jan 2 '17 at 14:52
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
Let $f(x)=cosfrac{x}{2}cos x$. Then $f$ has a change of sign at $x=pi/2$, so
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{pi/2}f(x),dx
-
int_{pi/2}^{2pi/3}f(x),dx
$$
On the other hand
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|
$$
does not need to be split at the change of sign. If $F(x)$ is an antiderivative of $f(x)$, you have
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx=
(F(pi/2)-F(pi/3))-(F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2))=
-F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2)+2F(pi/2)
$$
whereas
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|=
|F(2pi/3)-F(pi/3)|
$$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Let $f(x)=cosfrac{x}{2}cos x$. Then $f$ has a change of sign at $x=pi/2$, so
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{pi/2}f(x),dx
-
int_{pi/2}^{2pi/3}f(x),dx
$$
On the other hand
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|
$$
does not need to be split at the change of sign. If $F(x)$ is an antiderivative of $f(x)$, you have
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx=
(F(pi/2)-F(pi/3))-(F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2))=
-F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2)+2F(pi/2)
$$
whereas
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|=
|F(2pi/3)-F(pi/3)|
$$
add a comment |
Let $f(x)=cosfrac{x}{2}cos x$. Then $f$ has a change of sign at $x=pi/2$, so
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{pi/2}f(x),dx
-
int_{pi/2}^{2pi/3}f(x),dx
$$
On the other hand
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|
$$
does not need to be split at the change of sign. If $F(x)$ is an antiderivative of $f(x)$, you have
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx=
(F(pi/2)-F(pi/3))-(F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2))=
-F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2)+2F(pi/2)
$$
whereas
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|=
|F(2pi/3)-F(pi/3)|
$$
add a comment |
Let $f(x)=cosfrac{x}{2}cos x$. Then $f$ has a change of sign at $x=pi/2$, so
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{pi/2}f(x),dx
-
int_{pi/2}^{2pi/3}f(x),dx
$$
On the other hand
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|
$$
does not need to be split at the change of sign. If $F(x)$ is an antiderivative of $f(x)$, you have
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx=
(F(pi/2)-F(pi/3))-(F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2))=
-F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2)+2F(pi/2)
$$
whereas
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|=
|F(2pi/3)-F(pi/3)|
$$
Let $f(x)=cosfrac{x}{2}cos x$. Then $f$ has a change of sign at $x=pi/2$, so
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx
=
int_{pi/3}^{pi/2}f(x),dx
-
int_{pi/2}^{2pi/3}f(x),dx
$$
On the other hand
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|
$$
does not need to be split at the change of sign. If $F(x)$ is an antiderivative of $f(x)$, you have
$$
int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dx=
(F(pi/2)-F(pi/3))-(F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2))=
-F(2pi/3)-F(pi/2)+2F(pi/2)
$$
whereas
$$
left|int_{pi/3}^{2pi/3}|f(x)|,dxright|=
|F(2pi/3)-F(pi/3)|
$$
answered Jan 2 '17 at 14:58
egregegreg
179k1485202
179k1485202
add a comment |
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Think about the cancellation in the areas. Write the area above the $x$-axis as $A$ and the area below as $B$. Now, write the two integrals as sums and differences of $A$ and $B$.
– Michael Burr
Jan 2 '17 at 14:52