Dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$.
I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.
We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}
for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.
After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}
where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?
Thanks in advance!
Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}
where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).
functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces dual-spaces
New contributor
add a comment |
I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.
We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}
for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.
After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}
where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?
Thanks in advance!
Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}
where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).
functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces dual-spaces
New contributor
Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16
add a comment |
I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.
We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}
for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.
After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}
where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?
Thanks in advance!
Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}
where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).
functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces dual-spaces
New contributor
I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.
We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}
for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.
After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}
where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?
Thanks in advance!
Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}
where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).
functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces dual-spaces
functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces dual-spaces
New contributor
New contributor
edited Jan 6 at 12:54
Lemma 5
New contributor
asked Jan 6 at 11:56
Lemma 5Lemma 5
63
63
New contributor
New contributor
Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16
add a comment |
Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16
Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59
Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
$$
left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
$$
Then
$$
sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
=left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
$$
Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 22:20
add a comment |
Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
$$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
equipped with the $p$-norm,
$$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
Then we can show that,
$$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
$$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$
Now we can use the fact that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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active
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2 Answers
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You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
$$
left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
$$
Then
$$
sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
=left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
$$
Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 22:20
add a comment |
You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
$$
left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
$$
Then
$$
sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
=left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
$$
Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 22:20
add a comment |
You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
$$
left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
$$
Then
$$
sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
=left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
$$
You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
$$
left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
$$
Then
$$
sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
=left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
$$
answered Jan 6 at 20:55
Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami
124k1176175
124k1176175
Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 22:20
add a comment |
Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 22:20
Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 22:20
Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 22:20
add a comment |
Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
$$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
equipped with the $p$-norm,
$$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
Then we can show that,
$$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
$$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$
Now we can use the fact that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.
add a comment |
Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
$$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
equipped with the $p$-norm,
$$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
Then we can show that,
$$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
$$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$
Now we can use the fact that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.
add a comment |
Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
$$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
equipped with the $p$-norm,
$$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
Then we can show that,
$$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
$$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$
Now we can use the fact that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.
Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
$$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
equipped with the $p$-norm,
$$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
Then we can show that,
$$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
$$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$
Now we can use the fact that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.
answered 2 days ago
ktoiktoi
2,3481616
2,3481616
add a comment |
add a comment |
Lemma 5 is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16