Proof of a lower bound on probability












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How to prove that the probability of simultaneous occurrence of more than $frac n 2$ events from $n$ independent Bernoulli trials is greater than or equal to:$$1-e^{-2nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$ where $p$ is the probability of occurrence of each Bernoulli trial.



PS: I tried proving this using the Chernoff bound but without any success. I could prove the lower bound to be $$1-e^{-frac{1}{2p}nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$. My approach is similar to the answer provided here.










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  • $begingroup$
    Can you show your working for what you've done please?
    $endgroup$
    – stuart stevenson
    Jan 20 at 10:28










  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos I hope the question is complete now.
    $endgroup$
    – Durgesh Agrawal
    Jan 20 at 10:40
















-1












$begingroup$


How to prove that the probability of simultaneous occurrence of more than $frac n 2$ events from $n$ independent Bernoulli trials is greater than or equal to:$$1-e^{-2nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$ where $p$ is the probability of occurrence of each Bernoulli trial.



PS: I tried proving this using the Chernoff bound but without any success. I could prove the lower bound to be $$1-e^{-frac{1}{2p}nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$. My approach is similar to the answer provided here.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Can you show your working for what you've done please?
    $endgroup$
    – stuart stevenson
    Jan 20 at 10:28










  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos I hope the question is complete now.
    $endgroup$
    – Durgesh Agrawal
    Jan 20 at 10:40














-1












-1








-1


2



$begingroup$


How to prove that the probability of simultaneous occurrence of more than $frac n 2$ events from $n$ independent Bernoulli trials is greater than or equal to:$$1-e^{-2nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$ where $p$ is the probability of occurrence of each Bernoulli trial.



PS: I tried proving this using the Chernoff bound but without any success. I could prove the lower bound to be $$1-e^{-frac{1}{2p}nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$. My approach is similar to the answer provided here.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How to prove that the probability of simultaneous occurrence of more than $frac n 2$ events from $n$ independent Bernoulli trials is greater than or equal to:$$1-e^{-2nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$ where $p$ is the probability of occurrence of each Bernoulli trial.



PS: I tried proving this using the Chernoff bound but without any success. I could prove the lower bound to be $$1-e^{-frac{1}{2p}nleft(p-frac{1}{2}right)^2}$$. My approach is similar to the answer provided here.







probability probability-distributions upper-lower-bounds






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 20 at 10:34







Durgesh Agrawal

















asked Jan 20 at 9:31









Durgesh AgrawalDurgesh Agrawal

22




22












  • $begingroup$
    Can you show your working for what you've done please?
    $endgroup$
    – stuart stevenson
    Jan 20 at 10:28










  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos I hope the question is complete now.
    $endgroup$
    – Durgesh Agrawal
    Jan 20 at 10:40


















  • $begingroup$
    Can you show your working for what you've done please?
    $endgroup$
    – stuart stevenson
    Jan 20 at 10:28










  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos I hope the question is complete now.
    $endgroup$
    – Durgesh Agrawal
    Jan 20 at 10:40
















$begingroup$
Can you show your working for what you've done please?
$endgroup$
– stuart stevenson
Jan 20 at 10:28




$begingroup$
Can you show your working for what you've done please?
$endgroup$
– stuart stevenson
Jan 20 at 10:28












$begingroup$
@JoséCarlosSantos I hope the question is complete now.
$endgroup$
– Durgesh Agrawal
Jan 20 at 10:40




$begingroup$
@JoséCarlosSantos I hope the question is complete now.
$endgroup$
– Durgesh Agrawal
Jan 20 at 10:40










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