Nonlinear first order ODE with quadratic in the derivative












2












$begingroup$


This equation shouldn't be so hard, and yet I'm stymied.



$$
left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha frac{dw}{dz} + w beta = 0
$$
with $w(0) = w_0>0$ $w(L) = 0$ for some known L and $alpha(z)>0$ and $beta(z)>0$ known. $alpha$ and $beta$ actually begin life as functions of known $w$, so I dont worry about existence of solution, what I want to prove is that I can invert back from $alpha$ and $beta$ to give unique $w$. $d alpha / dz = beta + C$ for some constant $C$ if it helps.



I can solve for some special cases but I'm interested in a general expression, or at least to prove uniqueness. Interestingly, those special cases are not unique if I just put constraint at $z=0$ but become so with the $z=L$ constraint.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You may check a book "odinary ODE" by Ince.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 4:16










  • $begingroup$
    Hey, Ince is online... I would not have expected that. Ploughing through now.... archive.org/details/ordinarydifferen029666mbp
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:41












  • $begingroup$
    Do you really mean that "α and β actually begin life as known functions of w"?
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 13:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes..... Actually that is correct. In the real world, w is the velocity of fluid and $alpha = theta - Cz$ and $beta = theta^prime$ are measurable parameters from the flow. So then in the real world, we can consider measuring $theta$ to get $alpha$ and $beta$ and that as to give a way of computing $w$.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:46












  • $begingroup$
    Ince seems to be proposing a Taylor expansion of those square roots and writing the answer as infinite sum. Not the most satisfying solution...
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:48
















2












$begingroup$


This equation shouldn't be so hard, and yet I'm stymied.



$$
left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha frac{dw}{dz} + w beta = 0
$$
with $w(0) = w_0>0$ $w(L) = 0$ for some known L and $alpha(z)>0$ and $beta(z)>0$ known. $alpha$ and $beta$ actually begin life as functions of known $w$, so I dont worry about existence of solution, what I want to prove is that I can invert back from $alpha$ and $beta$ to give unique $w$. $d alpha / dz = beta + C$ for some constant $C$ if it helps.



I can solve for some special cases but I'm interested in a general expression, or at least to prove uniqueness. Interestingly, those special cases are not unique if I just put constraint at $z=0$ but become so with the $z=L$ constraint.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You may check a book "odinary ODE" by Ince.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 4:16










  • $begingroup$
    Hey, Ince is online... I would not have expected that. Ploughing through now.... archive.org/details/ordinarydifferen029666mbp
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:41












  • $begingroup$
    Do you really mean that "α and β actually begin life as known functions of w"?
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 13:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes..... Actually that is correct. In the real world, w is the velocity of fluid and $alpha = theta - Cz$ and $beta = theta^prime$ are measurable parameters from the flow. So then in the real world, we can consider measuring $theta$ to get $alpha$ and $beta$ and that as to give a way of computing $w$.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:46












  • $begingroup$
    Ince seems to be proposing a Taylor expansion of those square roots and writing the answer as infinite sum. Not the most satisfying solution...
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:48














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


This equation shouldn't be so hard, and yet I'm stymied.



$$
left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha frac{dw}{dz} + w beta = 0
$$
with $w(0) = w_0>0$ $w(L) = 0$ for some known L and $alpha(z)>0$ and $beta(z)>0$ known. $alpha$ and $beta$ actually begin life as functions of known $w$, so I dont worry about existence of solution, what I want to prove is that I can invert back from $alpha$ and $beta$ to give unique $w$. $d alpha / dz = beta + C$ for some constant $C$ if it helps.



I can solve for some special cases but I'm interested in a general expression, or at least to prove uniqueness. Interestingly, those special cases are not unique if I just put constraint at $z=0$ but become so with the $z=L$ constraint.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




This equation shouldn't be so hard, and yet I'm stymied.



$$
left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha frac{dw}{dz} + w beta = 0
$$
with $w(0) = w_0>0$ $w(L) = 0$ for some known L and $alpha(z)>0$ and $beta(z)>0$ known. $alpha$ and $beta$ actually begin life as functions of known $w$, so I dont worry about existence of solution, what I want to prove is that I can invert back from $alpha$ and $beta$ to give unique $w$. $d alpha / dz = beta + C$ for some constant $C$ if it helps.



I can solve for some special cases but I'm interested in a general expression, or at least to prove uniqueness. Interestingly, those special cases are not unique if I just put constraint at $z=0$ but become so with the $z=L$ constraint.







ordinary-differential-equations quadratics nonlinear-system






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jun 20 '14 at 3:35









TunnellerTunneller

111




111












  • $begingroup$
    You may check a book "odinary ODE" by Ince.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 4:16










  • $begingroup$
    Hey, Ince is online... I would not have expected that. Ploughing through now.... archive.org/details/ordinarydifferen029666mbp
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:41












  • $begingroup$
    Do you really mean that "α and β actually begin life as known functions of w"?
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 13:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes..... Actually that is correct. In the real world, w is the velocity of fluid and $alpha = theta - Cz$ and $beta = theta^prime$ are measurable parameters from the flow. So then in the real world, we can consider measuring $theta$ to get $alpha$ and $beta$ and that as to give a way of computing $w$.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:46












  • $begingroup$
    Ince seems to be proposing a Taylor expansion of those square roots and writing the answer as infinite sum. Not the most satisfying solution...
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:48


















  • $begingroup$
    You may check a book "odinary ODE" by Ince.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 4:16










  • $begingroup$
    Hey, Ince is online... I would not have expected that. Ploughing through now.... archive.org/details/ordinarydifferen029666mbp
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:41












  • $begingroup$
    Do you really mean that "α and β actually begin life as known functions of w"?
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 13:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes..... Actually that is correct. In the real world, w is the velocity of fluid and $alpha = theta - Cz$ and $beta = theta^prime$ are measurable parameters from the flow. So then in the real world, we can consider measuring $theta$ to get $alpha$ and $beta$ and that as to give a way of computing $w$.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:46












  • $begingroup$
    Ince seems to be proposing a Taylor expansion of those square roots and writing the answer as infinite sum. Not the most satisfying solution...
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 14:48
















$begingroup$
You may check a book "odinary ODE" by Ince.
$endgroup$
– mike
Jun 20 '14 at 4:16




$begingroup$
You may check a book "odinary ODE" by Ince.
$endgroup$
– mike
Jun 20 '14 at 4:16












$begingroup$
Hey, Ince is online... I would not have expected that. Ploughing through now.... archive.org/details/ordinarydifferen029666mbp
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 12:41






$begingroup$
Hey, Ince is online... I would not have expected that. Ploughing through now.... archive.org/details/ordinarydifferen029666mbp
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 12:41














$begingroup$
Do you really mean that "α and β actually begin life as known functions of w"?
$endgroup$
– mike
Jun 20 '14 at 13:15




$begingroup$
Do you really mean that "α and β actually begin life as known functions of w"?
$endgroup$
– mike
Jun 20 '14 at 13:15












$begingroup$
Yes..... Actually that is correct. In the real world, w is the velocity of fluid and $alpha = theta - Cz$ and $beta = theta^prime$ are measurable parameters from the flow. So then in the real world, we can consider measuring $theta$ to get $alpha$ and $beta$ and that as to give a way of computing $w$.
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 14:46






$begingroup$
Yes..... Actually that is correct. In the real world, w is the velocity of fluid and $alpha = theta - Cz$ and $beta = theta^prime$ are measurable parameters from the flow. So then in the real world, we can consider measuring $theta$ to get $alpha$ and $beta$ and that as to give a way of computing $w$.
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 14:46














$begingroup$
Ince seems to be proposing a Taylor expansion of those square roots and writing the answer as infinite sum. Not the most satisfying solution...
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 14:48




$begingroup$
Ince seems to be proposing a Taylor expansion of those square roots and writing the answer as infinite sum. Not the most satisfying solution...
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 14:48










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Start with
$$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha(z) frac{dw}{dz} + w beta(z) = 0$$



We obtain:



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)+frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(1)$$



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)-frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(2)$$



You might be integrate (1) and (2) to find $w(z)$.



EDIT:



Not quite yet.



$w(z)$ appeared in the square root.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yes, exactly. For the application at hand, I can prove that the term in the integrand is positive, but not strictly positive. It will touch zero. This means (I think) that I dont get even a simple proof that each of these ODE's has a unique solution as the square root is not Lipschitz at the zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Touching zero is fine. If $alpha(z)=A(w(z))$ and $beta(z)=B(w(z))$, then it will help.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 10:58










  • $begingroup$
    No obvious inversion to get back from w(z). In the formula, $theta$ will be measured data and $C$ a known constant. $$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + (theta(z) - Cz) frac{dw}{dz} + w frac{d theta}{dz} =0 $$
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:44













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Start with
$$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha(z) frac{dw}{dz} + w beta(z) = 0$$



We obtain:



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)+frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(1)$$



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)-frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(2)$$



You might be integrate (1) and (2) to find $w(z)$.



EDIT:



Not quite yet.



$w(z)$ appeared in the square root.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yes, exactly. For the application at hand, I can prove that the term in the integrand is positive, but not strictly positive. It will touch zero. This means (I think) that I dont get even a simple proof that each of these ODE's has a unique solution as the square root is not Lipschitz at the zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Touching zero is fine. If $alpha(z)=A(w(z))$ and $beta(z)=B(w(z))$, then it will help.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 10:58










  • $begingroup$
    No obvious inversion to get back from w(z). In the formula, $theta$ will be measured data and $C$ a known constant. $$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + (theta(z) - Cz) frac{dw}{dz} + w frac{d theta}{dz} =0 $$
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:44


















0












$begingroup$

Start with
$$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha(z) frac{dw}{dz} + w beta(z) = 0$$



We obtain:



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)+frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(1)$$



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)-frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(2)$$



You might be integrate (1) and (2) to find $w(z)$.



EDIT:



Not quite yet.



$w(z)$ appeared in the square root.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yes, exactly. For the application at hand, I can prove that the term in the integrand is positive, but not strictly positive. It will touch zero. This means (I think) that I dont get even a simple proof that each of these ODE's has a unique solution as the square root is not Lipschitz at the zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Touching zero is fine. If $alpha(z)=A(w(z))$ and $beta(z)=B(w(z))$, then it will help.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 10:58










  • $begingroup$
    No obvious inversion to get back from w(z). In the formula, $theta$ will be measured data and $C$ a known constant. $$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + (theta(z) - Cz) frac{dw}{dz} + w frac{d theta}{dz} =0 $$
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:44
















0












0








0





$begingroup$

Start with
$$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha(z) frac{dw}{dz} + w beta(z) = 0$$



We obtain:



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)+frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(1)$$



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)-frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(2)$$



You might be integrate (1) and (2) to find $w(z)$.



EDIT:



Not quite yet.



$w(z)$ appeared in the square root.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Start with
$$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + alpha(z) frac{dw}{dz} + w beta(z) = 0$$



We obtain:



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)+frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(1)$$



$$frac{dw}{dz}=-frac{1}{2}alpha(z)-frac{1}{2}left(alpha^2(z)-4w beta(z)right)^{1/2}......(2)$$



You might be integrate (1) and (2) to find $w(z)$.



EDIT:



Not quite yet.



$w(z)$ appeared in the square root.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jun 20 '14 at 3:51









mikemike

4,36421019




4,36421019












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, exactly. For the application at hand, I can prove that the term in the integrand is positive, but not strictly positive. It will touch zero. This means (I think) that I dont get even a simple proof that each of these ODE's has a unique solution as the square root is not Lipschitz at the zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Touching zero is fine. If $alpha(z)=A(w(z))$ and $beta(z)=B(w(z))$, then it will help.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 10:58










  • $begingroup$
    No obvious inversion to get back from w(z). In the formula, $theta$ will be measured data and $C$ a known constant. $$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + (theta(z) - Cz) frac{dw}{dz} + w frac{d theta}{dz} =0 $$
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:44




















  • $begingroup$
    Yes, exactly. For the application at hand, I can prove that the term in the integrand is positive, but not strictly positive. It will touch zero. This means (I think) that I dont get even a simple proof that each of these ODE's has a unique solution as the square root is not Lipschitz at the zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Touching zero is fine. If $alpha(z)=A(w(z))$ and $beta(z)=B(w(z))$, then it will help.
    $endgroup$
    – mike
    Jun 20 '14 at 10:58










  • $begingroup$
    No obvious inversion to get back from w(z). In the formula, $theta$ will be measured data and $C$ a known constant. $$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + (theta(z) - Cz) frac{dw}{dz} + w frac{d theta}{dz} =0 $$
    $endgroup$
    – Tunneller
    Jun 20 '14 at 12:44


















$begingroup$
Yes, exactly. For the application at hand, I can prove that the term in the integrand is positive, but not strictly positive. It will touch zero. This means (I think) that I dont get even a simple proof that each of these ODE's has a unique solution as the square root is not Lipschitz at the zero.
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 9:01




$begingroup$
Yes, exactly. For the application at hand, I can prove that the term in the integrand is positive, but not strictly positive. It will touch zero. This means (I think) that I dont get even a simple proof that each of these ODE's has a unique solution as the square root is not Lipschitz at the zero.
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 9:01












$begingroup$
Touching zero is fine. If $alpha(z)=A(w(z))$ and $beta(z)=B(w(z))$, then it will help.
$endgroup$
– mike
Jun 20 '14 at 10:58




$begingroup$
Touching zero is fine. If $alpha(z)=A(w(z))$ and $beta(z)=B(w(z))$, then it will help.
$endgroup$
– mike
Jun 20 '14 at 10:58












$begingroup$
No obvious inversion to get back from w(z). In the formula, $theta$ will be measured data and $C$ a known constant. $$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + (theta(z) - Cz) frac{dw}{dz} + w frac{d theta}{dz} =0 $$
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 12:44






$begingroup$
No obvious inversion to get back from w(z). In the formula, $theta$ will be measured data and $C$ a known constant. $$left( frac{dw}{dz} right )^2 + (theta(z) - Cz) frac{dw}{dz} + w frac{d theta}{dz} =0 $$
$endgroup$
– Tunneller
Jun 20 '14 at 12:44




















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