$D := (-1)^{frac{m-1}{2}}n$ and $N := (-1)^{frac{n-1}{2}}n$. Show that $N = D$.












1












$begingroup$


Let $m,n$ be an odd, positive integer:



$D := (-1)^{frac{m-1}{2}}n$ with D $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



$N := (-1)^{frac{n-1}{2}}n$ with N $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



Show that $N = D$:



What I got so far:



$D = pm n$ and it has to be odd since $n$ is odd. Same for $N$. Why can I follow from that that $D = N$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $m,n$ be an odd, positive integer:



    $D := (-1)^{frac{m-1}{2}}n$ with D $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



    $N := (-1)^{frac{n-1}{2}}n$ with N $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



    Show that $N = D$:



    What I got so far:



    $D = pm n$ and it has to be odd since $n$ is odd. Same for $N$. Why can I follow from that that $D = N$?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $m,n$ be an odd, positive integer:



      $D := (-1)^{frac{m-1}{2}}n$ with D $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



      $N := (-1)^{frac{n-1}{2}}n$ with N $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



      Show that $N = D$:



      What I got so far:



      $D = pm n$ and it has to be odd since $n$ is odd. Same for $N$. Why can I follow from that that $D = N$?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $m,n$ be an odd, positive integer:



      $D := (-1)^{frac{m-1}{2}}n$ with D $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



      $N := (-1)^{frac{n-1}{2}}n$ with N $equiv 1$ (mod 4)



      Show that $N = D$:



      What I got so far:



      $D = pm n$ and it has to be odd since $n$ is odd. Same for $N$. Why can I follow from that that $D = N$?







      linear-algebra abstract-algebra number-theory modular-arithmetic






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 22 at 14:03









      Yanko

      7,2201729




      7,2201729










      asked Jan 22 at 14:01









      FabianSchneiderFabianSchneider

      706




      706






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Hint:
          From the assumption each of $N,D$ is either $n$ or $-n$.



          If $n equiv 1 text{ mod } 4$ then $-n equiv 3 text{ mod } 4$ and vice versa.



          Is it possible that $N=n$ and $D=-n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So because $n equiv 1$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 3$ (mod 4), both $N$ and $D$ has to be $+n$. And $n equiv 3$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 1$ (mod 4), so both $N$ and $D$ has to be $-n$. And we are done because that are all cases for $n$. Is that what you telling me?
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:13










          • $begingroup$
            @FabianSchneider Exactly. Good job.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Jan 22 at 14:18












          • $begingroup$
            Perfect :) thanks a lot
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:20











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          0












          $begingroup$

          Hint:
          From the assumption each of $N,D$ is either $n$ or $-n$.



          If $n equiv 1 text{ mod } 4$ then $-n equiv 3 text{ mod } 4$ and vice versa.



          Is it possible that $N=n$ and $D=-n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So because $n equiv 1$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 3$ (mod 4), both $N$ and $D$ has to be $+n$. And $n equiv 3$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 1$ (mod 4), so both $N$ and $D$ has to be $-n$. And we are done because that are all cases for $n$. Is that what you telling me?
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:13










          • $begingroup$
            @FabianSchneider Exactly. Good job.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Jan 22 at 14:18












          • $begingroup$
            Perfect :) thanks a lot
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:20
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Hint:
          From the assumption each of $N,D$ is either $n$ or $-n$.



          If $n equiv 1 text{ mod } 4$ then $-n equiv 3 text{ mod } 4$ and vice versa.



          Is it possible that $N=n$ and $D=-n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So because $n equiv 1$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 3$ (mod 4), both $N$ and $D$ has to be $+n$. And $n equiv 3$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 1$ (mod 4), so both $N$ and $D$ has to be $-n$. And we are done because that are all cases for $n$. Is that what you telling me?
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:13










          • $begingroup$
            @FabianSchneider Exactly. Good job.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Jan 22 at 14:18












          • $begingroup$
            Perfect :) thanks a lot
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:20














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Hint:
          From the assumption each of $N,D$ is either $n$ or $-n$.



          If $n equiv 1 text{ mod } 4$ then $-n equiv 3 text{ mod } 4$ and vice versa.



          Is it possible that $N=n$ and $D=-n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Hint:
          From the assumption each of $N,D$ is either $n$ or $-n$.



          If $n equiv 1 text{ mod } 4$ then $-n equiv 3 text{ mod } 4$ and vice versa.



          Is it possible that $N=n$ and $D=-n$?







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 22 at 14:05









          YankoYanko

          7,2201729




          7,2201729












          • $begingroup$
            So because $n equiv 1$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 3$ (mod 4), both $N$ and $D$ has to be $+n$. And $n equiv 3$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 1$ (mod 4), so both $N$ and $D$ has to be $-n$. And we are done because that are all cases for $n$. Is that what you telling me?
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:13










          • $begingroup$
            @FabianSchneider Exactly. Good job.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Jan 22 at 14:18












          • $begingroup$
            Perfect :) thanks a lot
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:20


















          • $begingroup$
            So because $n equiv 1$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 3$ (mod 4), both $N$ and $D$ has to be $+n$. And $n equiv 3$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 1$ (mod 4), so both $N$ and $D$ has to be $-n$. And we are done because that are all cases for $n$. Is that what you telling me?
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:13










          • $begingroup$
            @FabianSchneider Exactly. Good job.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Jan 22 at 14:18












          • $begingroup$
            Perfect :) thanks a lot
            $endgroup$
            – FabianSchneider
            Jan 22 at 14:20
















          $begingroup$
          So because $n equiv 1$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 3$ (mod 4), both $N$ and $D$ has to be $+n$. And $n equiv 3$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 1$ (mod 4), so both $N$ and $D$ has to be $-n$. And we are done because that are all cases for $n$. Is that what you telling me?
          $endgroup$
          – FabianSchneider
          Jan 22 at 14:13




          $begingroup$
          So because $n equiv 1$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 3$ (mod 4), both $N$ and $D$ has to be $+n$. And $n equiv 3$ (mod 4) implies $-n equiv 1$ (mod 4), so both $N$ and $D$ has to be $-n$. And we are done because that are all cases for $n$. Is that what you telling me?
          $endgroup$
          – FabianSchneider
          Jan 22 at 14:13












          $begingroup$
          @FabianSchneider Exactly. Good job.
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Jan 22 at 14:18






          $begingroup$
          @FabianSchneider Exactly. Good job.
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Jan 22 at 14:18














          $begingroup$
          Perfect :) thanks a lot
          $endgroup$
          – FabianSchneider
          Jan 22 at 14:20




          $begingroup$
          Perfect :) thanks a lot
          $endgroup$
          – FabianSchneider
          Jan 22 at 14:20


















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