Sequence of smooth equicontinuous functions with unbounded derivatives












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I found a very elegant construction in this link: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/311289/444015, I have no questions about this example. However, at least for me, it doesnt look like a natural construction.



I tried to find more direct examples, but I didnt succeed. Every smooth equicontinuous sequence that I found is bounded.



I was wondering if there is any more obvious example than this, or if indeed to find any example, it is necessary to construct the sequence of functions in a similar way.










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    1












    $begingroup$


    I found a very elegant construction in this link: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/311289/444015, I have no questions about this example. However, at least for me, it doesnt look like a natural construction.



    I tried to find more direct examples, but I didnt succeed. Every smooth equicontinuous sequence that I found is bounded.



    I was wondering if there is any more obvious example than this, or if indeed to find any example, it is necessary to construct the sequence of functions in a similar way.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      I found a very elegant construction in this link: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/311289/444015, I have no questions about this example. However, at least for me, it doesnt look like a natural construction.



      I tried to find more direct examples, but I didnt succeed. Every smooth equicontinuous sequence that I found is bounded.



      I was wondering if there is any more obvious example than this, or if indeed to find any example, it is necessary to construct the sequence of functions in a similar way.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I found a very elegant construction in this link: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/311289/444015, I have no questions about this example. However, at least for me, it doesnt look like a natural construction.



      I tried to find more direct examples, but I didnt succeed. Every smooth equicontinuous sequence that I found is bounded.



      I was wondering if there is any more obvious example than this, or if indeed to find any example, it is necessary to construct the sequence of functions in a similar way.







      real-analysis equicontinuity






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jan 11 at 14:39









      Lucas CorrêaLucas Corrêa

      1,6181321




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          $begingroup$

          Let $f_n(x)=frac 1nsin(x^2)$. Then $f_nto0$ uniformly, so $(f_n)$ is equicontinuous.



          (That gives $sup_x|f_n'(x)|=infty$. "With unbounded derivatives" is somewhat ambiguous; if you want $sup_n|f_n'(0)|=infty$ use $frac 1nsin(n^2x)$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









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          • $begingroup$
            I got it! I believe that the question asks for $sup_{x}$. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Jan 11 at 14:55











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          $begingroup$

          Let $f_n(x)=frac 1nsin(x^2)$. Then $f_nto0$ uniformly, so $(f_n)$ is equicontinuous.



          (That gives $sup_x|f_n'(x)|=infty$. "With unbounded derivatives" is somewhat ambiguous; if you want $sup_n|f_n'(0)|=infty$ use $frac 1nsin(n^2x)$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I got it! I believe that the question asks for $sup_{x}$. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Jan 11 at 14:55
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Let $f_n(x)=frac 1nsin(x^2)$. Then $f_nto0$ uniformly, so $(f_n)$ is equicontinuous.



          (That gives $sup_x|f_n'(x)|=infty$. "With unbounded derivatives" is somewhat ambiguous; if you want $sup_n|f_n'(0)|=infty$ use $frac 1nsin(n^2x)$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I got it! I believe that the question asks for $sup_{x}$. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Jan 11 at 14:55














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Let $f_n(x)=frac 1nsin(x^2)$. Then $f_nto0$ uniformly, so $(f_n)$ is equicontinuous.



          (That gives $sup_x|f_n'(x)|=infty$. "With unbounded derivatives" is somewhat ambiguous; if you want $sup_n|f_n'(0)|=infty$ use $frac 1nsin(n^2x)$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Let $f_n(x)=frac 1nsin(x^2)$. Then $f_nto0$ uniformly, so $(f_n)$ is equicontinuous.



          (That gives $sup_x|f_n'(x)|=infty$. "With unbounded derivatives" is somewhat ambiguous; if you want $sup_n|f_n'(0)|=infty$ use $frac 1nsin(n^2x)$.)







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 11 at 14:44









          David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

          60k43994




          60k43994












          • $begingroup$
            I got it! I believe that the question asks for $sup_{x}$. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Jan 11 at 14:55


















          • $begingroup$
            I got it! I believe that the question asks for $sup_{x}$. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Jan 11 at 14:55
















          $begingroup$
          I got it! I believe that the question asks for $sup_{x}$. Thank you!
          $endgroup$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Jan 11 at 14:55




          $begingroup$
          I got it! I believe that the question asks for $sup_{x}$. Thank you!
          $endgroup$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Jan 11 at 14:55


















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