How to Show that a Field of Characteristic $0$ is Infinite [on hold]












1














How can one prove that if a field $K$ has characteristic zero, then $K$ is infinite?










share|cite|improve this question















put on hold as off-topic by Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde 2 days ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 1




    If $K$ is characteristic zero, then there is an injective map from $mathbb{Q}$.
    – Michael Burr
    2 days ago
















1














How can one prove that if a field $K$ has characteristic zero, then $K$ is infinite?










share|cite|improve this question















put on hold as off-topic by Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde 2 days ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 1




    If $K$ is characteristic zero, then there is an injective map from $mathbb{Q}$.
    – Michael Burr
    2 days ago














1












1








1







How can one prove that if a field $K$ has characteristic zero, then $K$ is infinite?










share|cite|improve this question















How can one prove that if a field $K$ has characteristic zero, then $K$ is infinite?







abstract-algebra field-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago









Antonios-Alexandros Robotis

9,63241640




9,63241640










asked 2 days ago









M. NavarroM. Navarro

627




627




put on hold as off-topic by Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde 2 days ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




put on hold as off-topic by Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde 2 days ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Henning Makholm, metamorphy, Ali Caglayan, José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    If $K$ is characteristic zero, then there is an injective map from $mathbb{Q}$.
    – Michael Burr
    2 days ago














  • 1




    If $K$ is characteristic zero, then there is an injective map from $mathbb{Q}$.
    – Michael Burr
    2 days ago








1




1




If $K$ is characteristic zero, then there is an injective map from $mathbb{Q}$.
– Michael Burr
2 days ago




If $K$ is characteristic zero, then there is an injective map from $mathbb{Q}$.
– Michael Burr
2 days ago










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















5














Consider the following sequence of elements



$a_1 = 1$, $a_2=1+1$,..., $a_n=1+1+...+1$ (we sum $n$ times) and so on.



we prove that ${a_n:ninmathbb{N}}$ is infinite. If by contradiction it's finite then $a_n=a_m$ for some $n<m$ in this case we have $a_m-a_n = a_{m-n}=0$ but then the characteristic is $m-n$ or smaller.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    4














    According to definition, a field $k$ is characteristic zero if there does not exist a number $nin mathbb{Z}$ so that
    $$ncdot 1= underbrace{1+cdots+1}_{n:text{times}}=0.$$
    It follows that the map $mathbb{Z}to k$ given by $nmapsto ncdot 1$ is an injection. So, $lvert mathbb{Z}rvertle lvert krvert$. In particular $k$ is infinite.






    share|cite|improve this answer





























      3














      If a field is of characteristic $0$,there is no $nin Bbb N $ such that $ncdot 1=underbrace{1+1+cdots+1}_{n; text{times}}=0$.



      Now $mcdot1=ncdot1$ implies $(m-n)cdot1=0$, a contradiction. Can you complete the argument?






      share|cite|improve this answer































        0














        If $F$ is a finite field, then viewed as a group with the additive structure, it is a finite group whose identity element is $0$. In any finite group, all elements have finite order. Thus the order of $1in F$ is finite. That order is, by definition, the characteristic of the field.






        share|cite|improve this answer




























          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes








          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          5














          Consider the following sequence of elements



          $a_1 = 1$, $a_2=1+1$,..., $a_n=1+1+...+1$ (we sum $n$ times) and so on.



          we prove that ${a_n:ninmathbb{N}}$ is infinite. If by contradiction it's finite then $a_n=a_m$ for some $n<m$ in this case we have $a_m-a_n = a_{m-n}=0$ but then the characteristic is $m-n$ or smaller.






          share|cite|improve this answer


























            5














            Consider the following sequence of elements



            $a_1 = 1$, $a_2=1+1$,..., $a_n=1+1+...+1$ (we sum $n$ times) and so on.



            we prove that ${a_n:ninmathbb{N}}$ is infinite. If by contradiction it's finite then $a_n=a_m$ for some $n<m$ in this case we have $a_m-a_n = a_{m-n}=0$ but then the characteristic is $m-n$ or smaller.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              5












              5








              5






              Consider the following sequence of elements



              $a_1 = 1$, $a_2=1+1$,..., $a_n=1+1+...+1$ (we sum $n$ times) and so on.



              we prove that ${a_n:ninmathbb{N}}$ is infinite. If by contradiction it's finite then $a_n=a_m$ for some $n<m$ in this case we have $a_m-a_n = a_{m-n}=0$ but then the characteristic is $m-n$ or smaller.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Consider the following sequence of elements



              $a_1 = 1$, $a_2=1+1$,..., $a_n=1+1+...+1$ (we sum $n$ times) and so on.



              we prove that ${a_n:ninmathbb{N}}$ is infinite. If by contradiction it's finite then $a_n=a_m$ for some $n<m$ in this case we have $a_m-a_n = a_{m-n}=0$ but then the characteristic is $m-n$ or smaller.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered 2 days ago









              YankoYanko

              6,469727




              6,469727























                  4














                  According to definition, a field $k$ is characteristic zero if there does not exist a number $nin mathbb{Z}$ so that
                  $$ncdot 1= underbrace{1+cdots+1}_{n:text{times}}=0.$$
                  It follows that the map $mathbb{Z}to k$ given by $nmapsto ncdot 1$ is an injection. So, $lvert mathbb{Z}rvertle lvert krvert$. In particular $k$ is infinite.






                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                    4














                    According to definition, a field $k$ is characteristic zero if there does not exist a number $nin mathbb{Z}$ so that
                    $$ncdot 1= underbrace{1+cdots+1}_{n:text{times}}=0.$$
                    It follows that the map $mathbb{Z}to k$ given by $nmapsto ncdot 1$ is an injection. So, $lvert mathbb{Z}rvertle lvert krvert$. In particular $k$ is infinite.






                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                      4












                      4








                      4






                      According to definition, a field $k$ is characteristic zero if there does not exist a number $nin mathbb{Z}$ so that
                      $$ncdot 1= underbrace{1+cdots+1}_{n:text{times}}=0.$$
                      It follows that the map $mathbb{Z}to k$ given by $nmapsto ncdot 1$ is an injection. So, $lvert mathbb{Z}rvertle lvert krvert$. In particular $k$ is infinite.






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      According to definition, a field $k$ is characteristic zero if there does not exist a number $nin mathbb{Z}$ so that
                      $$ncdot 1= underbrace{1+cdots+1}_{n:text{times}}=0.$$
                      It follows that the map $mathbb{Z}to k$ given by $nmapsto ncdot 1$ is an injection. So, $lvert mathbb{Z}rvertle lvert krvert$. In particular $k$ is infinite.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered 2 days ago









                      Antonios-Alexandros RobotisAntonios-Alexandros Robotis

                      9,63241640




                      9,63241640























                          3














                          If a field is of characteristic $0$,there is no $nin Bbb N $ such that $ncdot 1=underbrace{1+1+cdots+1}_{n; text{times}}=0$.



                          Now $mcdot1=ncdot1$ implies $(m-n)cdot1=0$, a contradiction. Can you complete the argument?






                          share|cite|improve this answer




























                            3














                            If a field is of characteristic $0$,there is no $nin Bbb N $ such that $ncdot 1=underbrace{1+1+cdots+1}_{n; text{times}}=0$.



                            Now $mcdot1=ncdot1$ implies $(m-n)cdot1=0$, a contradiction. Can you complete the argument?






                            share|cite|improve this answer


























                              3












                              3








                              3






                              If a field is of characteristic $0$,there is no $nin Bbb N $ such that $ncdot 1=underbrace{1+1+cdots+1}_{n; text{times}}=0$.



                              Now $mcdot1=ncdot1$ implies $(m-n)cdot1=0$, a contradiction. Can you complete the argument?






                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              If a field is of characteristic $0$,there is no $nin Bbb N $ such that $ncdot 1=underbrace{1+1+cdots+1}_{n; text{times}}=0$.



                              Now $mcdot1=ncdot1$ implies $(m-n)cdot1=0$, a contradiction. Can you complete the argument?







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited yesterday

























                              answered 2 days ago









                              Thomas ShelbyThomas Shelby

                              1,893217




                              1,893217























                                  0














                                  If $F$ is a finite field, then viewed as a group with the additive structure, it is a finite group whose identity element is $0$. In any finite group, all elements have finite order. Thus the order of $1in F$ is finite. That order is, by definition, the characteristic of the field.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                                    0














                                    If $F$ is a finite field, then viewed as a group with the additive structure, it is a finite group whose identity element is $0$. In any finite group, all elements have finite order. Thus the order of $1in F$ is finite. That order is, by definition, the characteristic of the field.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                                      0












                                      0








                                      0






                                      If $F$ is a finite field, then viewed as a group with the additive structure, it is a finite group whose identity element is $0$. In any finite group, all elements have finite order. Thus the order of $1in F$ is finite. That order is, by definition, the characteristic of the field.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      If $F$ is a finite field, then viewed as a group with the additive structure, it is a finite group whose identity element is $0$. In any finite group, all elements have finite order. Thus the order of $1in F$ is finite. That order is, by definition, the characteristic of the field.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered 2 days ago









                                      Ittay WeissIttay Weiss

                                      63.6k6101183




                                      63.6k6101183















                                          Popular posts from this blog

                                          Mario Kart Wii

                                          What does “Dominus providebit” mean?

                                          Antonio Litta Visconti Arese