Is $f(x)=sin(1/x),;xne0$, $f(0)=0$, Riemann integrable on $[0,1]$?

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Is the function $sin frac{1}{x}$ Riemann integrable on an interval containing $0$?
calculus real-analysis integration
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is the function $sin frac{1}{x}$ Riemann integrable on an interval containing $0$?
calculus real-analysis integration
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$begingroup$
Consider a change of variables.
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– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Mar 27 '14 at 4:17
3
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A function is Riemann integrable iff it is bounded and continuous almost everywhere.
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– Paul Siegel
Mar 27 '14 at 4:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is the function $sin frac{1}{x}$ Riemann integrable on an interval containing $0$?
calculus real-analysis integration
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Is the function $sin frac{1}{x}$ Riemann integrable on an interval containing $0$?
calculus real-analysis integration
calculus real-analysis integration
edited Jan 9 at 11:14


Larry
2,0912826
2,0912826
asked Mar 27 '14 at 4:12
user134070user134070
387521
387521
$begingroup$
Consider a change of variables.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Mar 27 '14 at 4:17
3
$begingroup$
A function is Riemann integrable iff it is bounded and continuous almost everywhere.
$endgroup$
– Paul Siegel
Mar 27 '14 at 4:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider a change of variables.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Mar 27 '14 at 4:17
3
$begingroup$
A function is Riemann integrable iff it is bounded and continuous almost everywhere.
$endgroup$
– Paul Siegel
Mar 27 '14 at 4:41
$begingroup$
Consider a change of variables.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Mar 27 '14 at 4:17
$begingroup$
Consider a change of variables.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Mar 27 '14 at 4:17
3
3
$begingroup$
A function is Riemann integrable iff it is bounded and continuous almost everywhere.
$endgroup$
– Paul Siegel
Mar 27 '14 at 4:41
$begingroup$
A function is Riemann integrable iff it is bounded and continuous almost everywhere.
$endgroup$
– Paul Siegel
Mar 27 '14 at 4:41
add a comment |
2 Answers
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$begingroup$
There are 2 proofs: a short one and a longer one.
First Proof: f is bounded on [0,1] since |sin 1/x| is less than or equal to 1. f is continuous except at x=0 (since limit as x-> 0 doesn’t exist), so the set of discontinuities is the single point x=0 and this set has measure zero. There is a well known Thm. that if a function is bounded and continuous except on a set of measure zero it is (Riemann) integrable. If you’re not familiar with measure, this answer probably won’t help you much, however.
The second proof is based on the upper U and lower L sums. f is integrable if given any e (epsilon) greater than zero there is a partition such that U – L is less than e. So given e, consider the intervals [0,e] and [e,1]. Since f is bounded and continuous on [e,1] it is integrable, so there is a partition P1 such that U-L
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add a comment |
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This is late but will be useful for future readers.
PROOF
Let $epsilon>0$ be given but arbitrarily small. Choose $x_1in(0,1]$ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then, the set $P={0,x_1,1} $ is a patition. The upper and lower Darboux sums are given by
begin{align}U(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;M_{k}= sup{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}},end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;m_{k}= inf{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}}.end{align}
By computation
begin{align}U(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=M_1 (x_1-x_{0})+M_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&= 1-x_{1},;;text{where};;M_{1}=0,,M_{2}=1,end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=m_1 (x_1-x_{0})+m_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&=-(1-x_{1}),;;text{where};;m_{1}=0,,m_{2}=-1.end{align}
Thus,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)&=2(1-x_{1})<epsilon.end{align}
So, given any $epsilon$, choose $P={0,x_1,1} $ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)<epsilon.end{align}
Hence, $f$ is integrable.
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add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
There are 2 proofs: a short one and a longer one.
First Proof: f is bounded on [0,1] since |sin 1/x| is less than or equal to 1. f is continuous except at x=0 (since limit as x-> 0 doesn’t exist), so the set of discontinuities is the single point x=0 and this set has measure zero. There is a well known Thm. that if a function is bounded and continuous except on a set of measure zero it is (Riemann) integrable. If you’re not familiar with measure, this answer probably won’t help you much, however.
The second proof is based on the upper U and lower L sums. f is integrable if given any e (epsilon) greater than zero there is a partition such that U – L is less than e. So given e, consider the intervals [0,e] and [e,1]. Since f is bounded and continuous on [e,1] it is integrable, so there is a partition P1 such that U-L
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There are 2 proofs: a short one and a longer one.
First Proof: f is bounded on [0,1] since |sin 1/x| is less than or equal to 1. f is continuous except at x=0 (since limit as x-> 0 doesn’t exist), so the set of discontinuities is the single point x=0 and this set has measure zero. There is a well known Thm. that if a function is bounded and continuous except on a set of measure zero it is (Riemann) integrable. If you’re not familiar with measure, this answer probably won’t help you much, however.
The second proof is based on the upper U and lower L sums. f is integrable if given any e (epsilon) greater than zero there is a partition such that U – L is less than e. So given e, consider the intervals [0,e] and [e,1]. Since f is bounded and continuous on [e,1] it is integrable, so there is a partition P1 such that U-L
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There are 2 proofs: a short one and a longer one.
First Proof: f is bounded on [0,1] since |sin 1/x| is less than or equal to 1. f is continuous except at x=0 (since limit as x-> 0 doesn’t exist), so the set of discontinuities is the single point x=0 and this set has measure zero. There is a well known Thm. that if a function is bounded and continuous except on a set of measure zero it is (Riemann) integrable. If you’re not familiar with measure, this answer probably won’t help you much, however.
The second proof is based on the upper U and lower L sums. f is integrable if given any e (epsilon) greater than zero there is a partition such that U – L is less than e. So given e, consider the intervals [0,e] and [e,1]. Since f is bounded and continuous on [e,1] it is integrable, so there is a partition P1 such that U-L
$endgroup$
There are 2 proofs: a short one and a longer one.
First Proof: f is bounded on [0,1] since |sin 1/x| is less than or equal to 1. f is continuous except at x=0 (since limit as x-> 0 doesn’t exist), so the set of discontinuities is the single point x=0 and this set has measure zero. There is a well known Thm. that if a function is bounded and continuous except on a set of measure zero it is (Riemann) integrable. If you’re not familiar with measure, this answer probably won’t help you much, however.
The second proof is based on the upper U and lower L sums. f is integrable if given any e (epsilon) greater than zero there is a partition such that U – L is less than e. So given e, consider the intervals [0,e] and [e,1]. Since f is bounded and continuous on [e,1] it is integrable, so there is a partition P1 such that U-L
answered Oct 21 '14 at 7:29
honghong
7112
7112
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is late but will be useful for future readers.
PROOF
Let $epsilon>0$ be given but arbitrarily small. Choose $x_1in(0,1]$ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then, the set $P={0,x_1,1} $ is a patition. The upper and lower Darboux sums are given by
begin{align}U(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;M_{k}= sup{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}},end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;m_{k}= inf{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}}.end{align}
By computation
begin{align}U(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=M_1 (x_1-x_{0})+M_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&= 1-x_{1},;;text{where};;M_{1}=0,,M_{2}=1,end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=m_1 (x_1-x_{0})+m_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&=-(1-x_{1}),;;text{where};;m_{1}=0,,m_{2}=-1.end{align}
Thus,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)&=2(1-x_{1})<epsilon.end{align}
So, given any $epsilon$, choose $P={0,x_1,1} $ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)<epsilon.end{align}
Hence, $f$ is integrable.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is late but will be useful for future readers.
PROOF
Let $epsilon>0$ be given but arbitrarily small. Choose $x_1in(0,1]$ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then, the set $P={0,x_1,1} $ is a patition. The upper and lower Darboux sums are given by
begin{align}U(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;M_{k}= sup{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}},end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;m_{k}= inf{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}}.end{align}
By computation
begin{align}U(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=M_1 (x_1-x_{0})+M_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&= 1-x_{1},;;text{where};;M_{1}=0,,M_{2}=1,end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=m_1 (x_1-x_{0})+m_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&=-(1-x_{1}),;;text{where};;m_{1}=0,,m_{2}=-1.end{align}
Thus,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)&=2(1-x_{1})<epsilon.end{align}
So, given any $epsilon$, choose $P={0,x_1,1} $ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)<epsilon.end{align}
Hence, $f$ is integrable.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is late but will be useful for future readers.
PROOF
Let $epsilon>0$ be given but arbitrarily small. Choose $x_1in(0,1]$ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then, the set $P={0,x_1,1} $ is a patition. The upper and lower Darboux sums are given by
begin{align}U(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;M_{k}= sup{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}},end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;m_{k}= inf{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}}.end{align}
By computation
begin{align}U(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=M_1 (x_1-x_{0})+M_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&= 1-x_{1},;;text{where};;M_{1}=0,,M_{2}=1,end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=m_1 (x_1-x_{0})+m_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&=-(1-x_{1}),;;text{where};;m_{1}=0,,m_{2}=-1.end{align}
Thus,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)&=2(1-x_{1})<epsilon.end{align}
So, given any $epsilon$, choose $P={0,x_1,1} $ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)<epsilon.end{align}
Hence, $f$ is integrable.
$endgroup$
This is late but will be useful for future readers.
PROOF
Let $epsilon>0$ be given but arbitrarily small. Choose $x_1in(0,1]$ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then, the set $P={0,x_1,1} $ is a patition. The upper and lower Darboux sums are given by
begin{align}U(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;M_{k}= sup{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}},end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1}),;;text{where};;m_{k}= inf{f(x):;x_{k-1}leq x<x_{k}}.end{align}
By computation
begin{align}U(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}M_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=M_1 (x_1-x_{0})+M_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&= 1-x_{1},;;text{where};;M_{1}=0,,M_{2}=1,end{align}
begin{align}L(f,P)&=sum^{2}_{k=1}m_k (x_k-x_{k+1})\&=m_1 (x_1-x_{0})+m_2 (x_2-x_{1})\&=-(1-x_{1}),;;text{where};;m_{1}=0,,m_{2}=-1.end{align}
Thus,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)&=2(1-x_{1})<epsilon.end{align}
So, given any $epsilon$, choose $P={0,x_1,1} $ such that $1-x_1<epsilon/2.$ Then,
begin{align}U(f,P)-L(f,P)<epsilon.end{align}
Hence, $f$ is integrable.
edited Jan 9 at 12:31
answered Jan 9 at 11:30


Omojola MichealOmojola Micheal
1,814324
1,814324
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$begingroup$
Consider a change of variables.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Mar 27 '14 at 4:17
3
$begingroup$
A function is Riemann integrable iff it is bounded and continuous almost everywhere.
$endgroup$
– Paul Siegel
Mar 27 '14 at 4:41