Application of the Sylow Theorems to groups of order $p^2q$












22












$begingroup$


I am trying to show that any group of order $p^2q$ has a normal Sylow subgroup where $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes.



In the case $p>q$ I have no problem.. By Sylow $n_p|q$, so $n_p$ is either $1$ or $q$. But we also have $n_pequiv1mod p$ which rules out $q$. So in the case $p>q$, $n_p=1$ and the unique p-Sylow subgroup is normal.



In the case $p<q$ however, I run into a problem.. Again we have $n_q|p^2$ (so $n_qin{1,p,p^2}$). Again, the condition $n_qequiv1mod q$ rules out $p$.
Now I am attempting to rule out the case $n_q=p^2$: Assume $n_q=p^2$. Then $p^2equiv1mod qimplies (p+1)(p-1)equiv0mod qimplies q$ must divide $(p+1)$ since $p<q$ and $q$ prime. But since $p<q$ and $q|(p+1)$ we see $q=p+1$. For primes this only happens when $p=2, q=3$.



Does this mean I need to check groups of order $2^2cdot3=12$ or did I miss something along the way that lets me conclude $n_qneq p^2$ and thus that $n_q=1$.










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$endgroup$

















    22












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to show that any group of order $p^2q$ has a normal Sylow subgroup where $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes.



    In the case $p>q$ I have no problem.. By Sylow $n_p|q$, so $n_p$ is either $1$ or $q$. But we also have $n_pequiv1mod p$ which rules out $q$. So in the case $p>q$, $n_p=1$ and the unique p-Sylow subgroup is normal.



    In the case $p<q$ however, I run into a problem.. Again we have $n_q|p^2$ (so $n_qin{1,p,p^2}$). Again, the condition $n_qequiv1mod q$ rules out $p$.
    Now I am attempting to rule out the case $n_q=p^2$: Assume $n_q=p^2$. Then $p^2equiv1mod qimplies (p+1)(p-1)equiv0mod qimplies q$ must divide $(p+1)$ since $p<q$ and $q$ prime. But since $p<q$ and $q|(p+1)$ we see $q=p+1$. For primes this only happens when $p=2, q=3$.



    Does this mean I need to check groups of order $2^2cdot3=12$ or did I miss something along the way that lets me conclude $n_qneq p^2$ and thus that $n_q=1$.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      22












      22








      22


      5



      $begingroup$


      I am trying to show that any group of order $p^2q$ has a normal Sylow subgroup where $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes.



      In the case $p>q$ I have no problem.. By Sylow $n_p|q$, so $n_p$ is either $1$ or $q$. But we also have $n_pequiv1mod p$ which rules out $q$. So in the case $p>q$, $n_p=1$ and the unique p-Sylow subgroup is normal.



      In the case $p<q$ however, I run into a problem.. Again we have $n_q|p^2$ (so $n_qin{1,p,p^2}$). Again, the condition $n_qequiv1mod q$ rules out $p$.
      Now I am attempting to rule out the case $n_q=p^2$: Assume $n_q=p^2$. Then $p^2equiv1mod qimplies (p+1)(p-1)equiv0mod qimplies q$ must divide $(p+1)$ since $p<q$ and $q$ prime. But since $p<q$ and $q|(p+1)$ we see $q=p+1$. For primes this only happens when $p=2, q=3$.



      Does this mean I need to check groups of order $2^2cdot3=12$ or did I miss something along the way that lets me conclude $n_qneq p^2$ and thus that $n_q=1$.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am trying to show that any group of order $p^2q$ has a normal Sylow subgroup where $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes.



      In the case $p>q$ I have no problem.. By Sylow $n_p|q$, so $n_p$ is either $1$ or $q$. But we also have $n_pequiv1mod p$ which rules out $q$. So in the case $p>q$, $n_p=1$ and the unique p-Sylow subgroup is normal.



      In the case $p<q$ however, I run into a problem.. Again we have $n_q|p^2$ (so $n_qin{1,p,p^2}$). Again, the condition $n_qequiv1mod q$ rules out $p$.
      Now I am attempting to rule out the case $n_q=p^2$: Assume $n_q=p^2$. Then $p^2equiv1mod qimplies (p+1)(p-1)equiv0mod qimplies q$ must divide $(p+1)$ since $p<q$ and $q$ prime. But since $p<q$ and $q|(p+1)$ we see $q=p+1$. For primes this only happens when $p=2, q=3$.



      Does this mean I need to check groups of order $2^2cdot3=12$ or did I miss something along the way that lets me conclude $n_qneq p^2$ and thus that $n_q=1$.







      abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups






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      asked Aug 16 '11 at 23:35









      RHPRHP

      1,40811525




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          3 Answers
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          22












          $begingroup$

          Here's another approach: suppose $n_q=p^2$. The $p^2$ $q$-Sylows each have $q-1$ nonidentity elements, and since a group of prime order is generated by any of its nonidentity elements, these sets are disjoint. So our group has $p^2(q-1)$ elements of order $q$, and so only $p^2$ elements of any other order. There's thus only room for one $p$-Sylow, which is thus normal.



          This possibiity does in fact occur: $A_4$ has order 12, has the Klein group as a normal $2$-Sylow, and all $8$ other elements are $3$-cycles.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            8












            $begingroup$

            Everything you've written seems to be correct. But you don't necessarily have to know the groups of order $12$.



            To finish questions like this one off, it's often helpful to count elements. Here, if a group of order $12$ has more than one Sylow $3$-subgroup then there are four, and these intersect trivially. If you remove the elements of period $3$ from the group, then you aren't left with much!






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$





















              0












              $begingroup$

              Consider the case of $q > p$. Then,



              $n_q = p^2$ or $1$ and



              $n_p = q$ or $1$.



              Let G have no non-trivial normal subgroup. Then,



              $n_q = p^2$ and $n_p=q$. Then there are $p^2 (q-1) $ elements of order $q$ and $q(p-1) $ elements of order $p$. So, we have the following ,
              begin{align}
              p^2q &geq p^2(q-1) + q(p-1) + 1 \
              & geq p^2q+pq-p^2-q+1 \
              & geq p^2q + (p-1) (q-1)
              end{align}

              $$implies (p-1)(q-1) = 0 implies p=1 text{ or } q=1$$
              But $p$ and $q$ are primes.



              Hence $G$ has a non-trivial normal subgroup.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













                Your Answer





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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                22












                $begingroup$

                Here's another approach: suppose $n_q=p^2$. The $p^2$ $q$-Sylows each have $q-1$ nonidentity elements, and since a group of prime order is generated by any of its nonidentity elements, these sets are disjoint. So our group has $p^2(q-1)$ elements of order $q$, and so only $p^2$ elements of any other order. There's thus only room for one $p$-Sylow, which is thus normal.



                This possibiity does in fact occur: $A_4$ has order 12, has the Klein group as a normal $2$-Sylow, and all $8$ other elements are $3$-cycles.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  22












                  $begingroup$

                  Here's another approach: suppose $n_q=p^2$. The $p^2$ $q$-Sylows each have $q-1$ nonidentity elements, and since a group of prime order is generated by any of its nonidentity elements, these sets are disjoint. So our group has $p^2(q-1)$ elements of order $q$, and so only $p^2$ elements of any other order. There's thus only room for one $p$-Sylow, which is thus normal.



                  This possibiity does in fact occur: $A_4$ has order 12, has the Klein group as a normal $2$-Sylow, and all $8$ other elements are $3$-cycles.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    22












                    22








                    22





                    $begingroup$

                    Here's another approach: suppose $n_q=p^2$. The $p^2$ $q$-Sylows each have $q-1$ nonidentity elements, and since a group of prime order is generated by any of its nonidentity elements, these sets are disjoint. So our group has $p^2(q-1)$ elements of order $q$, and so only $p^2$ elements of any other order. There's thus only room for one $p$-Sylow, which is thus normal.



                    This possibiity does in fact occur: $A_4$ has order 12, has the Klein group as a normal $2$-Sylow, and all $8$ other elements are $3$-cycles.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Here's another approach: suppose $n_q=p^2$. The $p^2$ $q$-Sylows each have $q-1$ nonidentity elements, and since a group of prime order is generated by any of its nonidentity elements, these sets are disjoint. So our group has $p^2(q-1)$ elements of order $q$, and so only $p^2$ elements of any other order. There's thus only room for one $p$-Sylow, which is thus normal.



                    This possibiity does in fact occur: $A_4$ has order 12, has the Klein group as a normal $2$-Sylow, and all $8$ other elements are $3$-cycles.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Aug 16 '11 at 23:56









                    Chris EagleChris Eagle

                    29k26997




                    29k26997























                        8












                        $begingroup$

                        Everything you've written seems to be correct. But you don't necessarily have to know the groups of order $12$.



                        To finish questions like this one off, it's often helpful to count elements. Here, if a group of order $12$ has more than one Sylow $3$-subgroup then there are four, and these intersect trivially. If you remove the elements of period $3$ from the group, then you aren't left with much!






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$


















                          8












                          $begingroup$

                          Everything you've written seems to be correct. But you don't necessarily have to know the groups of order $12$.



                          To finish questions like this one off, it's often helpful to count elements. Here, if a group of order $12$ has more than one Sylow $3$-subgroup then there are four, and these intersect trivially. If you remove the elements of period $3$ from the group, then you aren't left with much!






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$
















                            8












                            8








                            8





                            $begingroup$

                            Everything you've written seems to be correct. But you don't necessarily have to know the groups of order $12$.



                            To finish questions like this one off, it's often helpful to count elements. Here, if a group of order $12$ has more than one Sylow $3$-subgroup then there are four, and these intersect trivially. If you remove the elements of period $3$ from the group, then you aren't left with much!






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Everything you've written seems to be correct. But you don't necessarily have to know the groups of order $12$.



                            To finish questions like this one off, it's often helpful to count elements. Here, if a group of order $12$ has more than one Sylow $3$-subgroup then there are four, and these intersect trivially. If you remove the elements of period $3$ from the group, then you aren't left with much!







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Aug 17 '11 at 0:06

























                            answered Aug 16 '11 at 23:55









                            Dylan MorelandDylan Moreland

                            16.8k23563




                            16.8k23563























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                Consider the case of $q > p$. Then,



                                $n_q = p^2$ or $1$ and



                                $n_p = q$ or $1$.



                                Let G have no non-trivial normal subgroup. Then,



                                $n_q = p^2$ and $n_p=q$. Then there are $p^2 (q-1) $ elements of order $q$ and $q(p-1) $ elements of order $p$. So, we have the following ,
                                begin{align}
                                p^2q &geq p^2(q-1) + q(p-1) + 1 \
                                & geq p^2q+pq-p^2-q+1 \
                                & geq p^2q + (p-1) (q-1)
                                end{align}

                                $$implies (p-1)(q-1) = 0 implies p=1 text{ or } q=1$$
                                But $p$ and $q$ are primes.



                                Hence $G$ has a non-trivial normal subgroup.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Consider the case of $q > p$. Then,



                                  $n_q = p^2$ or $1$ and



                                  $n_p = q$ or $1$.



                                  Let G have no non-trivial normal subgroup. Then,



                                  $n_q = p^2$ and $n_p=q$. Then there are $p^2 (q-1) $ elements of order $q$ and $q(p-1) $ elements of order $p$. So, we have the following ,
                                  begin{align}
                                  p^2q &geq p^2(q-1) + q(p-1) + 1 \
                                  & geq p^2q+pq-p^2-q+1 \
                                  & geq p^2q + (p-1) (q-1)
                                  end{align}

                                  $$implies (p-1)(q-1) = 0 implies p=1 text{ or } q=1$$
                                  But $p$ and $q$ are primes.



                                  Hence $G$ has a non-trivial normal subgroup.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    Consider the case of $q > p$. Then,



                                    $n_q = p^2$ or $1$ and



                                    $n_p = q$ or $1$.



                                    Let G have no non-trivial normal subgroup. Then,



                                    $n_q = p^2$ and $n_p=q$. Then there are $p^2 (q-1) $ elements of order $q$ and $q(p-1) $ elements of order $p$. So, we have the following ,
                                    begin{align}
                                    p^2q &geq p^2(q-1) + q(p-1) + 1 \
                                    & geq p^2q+pq-p^2-q+1 \
                                    & geq p^2q + (p-1) (q-1)
                                    end{align}

                                    $$implies (p-1)(q-1) = 0 implies p=1 text{ or } q=1$$
                                    But $p$ and $q$ are primes.



                                    Hence $G$ has a non-trivial normal subgroup.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    Consider the case of $q > p$. Then,



                                    $n_q = p^2$ or $1$ and



                                    $n_p = q$ or $1$.



                                    Let G have no non-trivial normal subgroup. Then,



                                    $n_q = p^2$ and $n_p=q$. Then there are $p^2 (q-1) $ elements of order $q$ and $q(p-1) $ elements of order $p$. So, we have the following ,
                                    begin{align}
                                    p^2q &geq p^2(q-1) + q(p-1) + 1 \
                                    & geq p^2q+pq-p^2-q+1 \
                                    & geq p^2q + (p-1) (q-1)
                                    end{align}

                                    $$implies (p-1)(q-1) = 0 implies p=1 text{ or } q=1$$
                                    But $p$ and $q$ are primes.



                                    Hence $G$ has a non-trivial normal subgroup.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Jan 8 at 7:08









                                    pavanpavan

                                    314




                                    314






























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