Show convergence of inner product of an operator and a weak convergent sequence












3















Let $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$, $u_n rightharpoonup u in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$ and $B$ be an operator on $(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))times(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.



B is defined by $$langle B(w,u), vrangle := int_Omega ||nabla u - h(w)||^{p-2}(nabla u - h(w))nabla v dx,$$ where $h:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}^n$ is continuous and bounded.



I want to show that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n -urangle to 0$ where $vin (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.




Is it right, that I just have to show that $B(u_n, v)in(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))^*$ $forall ninmathbb{N}$?



Then the statement follows from the weak continuity of $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ (?)










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Is it intended that you first write $B(w,u)$ and then $B(u_n,v)$? Or did you swap the two variables by any chance?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • This is the way it is written in my exercise. So I think it is intended to be like this @LorenzoQuarisa
    – user3766553
    2 days ago










  • $Omega$ is bounded, right? Because otherwise for $h(x)=1$ the integral defining $left langle B(w,u),vrightrangle$ might fail to converge
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • Actually there is no information about $Omega$ in my exercise. But is my idea right? When $B(u_n, v)in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega ))^*$ $forall nin mathbb{N}$ it holds that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n-urangle to 0$?
    – user3766553
    yesterday












  • No, it does not. You need some information on the map $u_nmapsto B(u_n,v)$. A priori, it could be that this dependance makes the evaluation $left langle B(u_n,v),u_n-urightrangle$ blow-up even if $left langle F,u_n-urightrangle$ for all $Fin W_0^{1,p}(Omega)^*$. I think you need to work on the specific expression of $B(w,v)$ here. I tried myself and was not able to solve it, probably because I don't know how to use the condition that $u,vin W_0^{1,p}$ rather than just $W^{1,p}$. Any ideas on that?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    yesterday


















3















Let $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$, $u_n rightharpoonup u in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$ and $B$ be an operator on $(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))times(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.



B is defined by $$langle B(w,u), vrangle := int_Omega ||nabla u - h(w)||^{p-2}(nabla u - h(w))nabla v dx,$$ where $h:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}^n$ is continuous and bounded.



I want to show that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n -urangle to 0$ where $vin (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.




Is it right, that I just have to show that $B(u_n, v)in(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))^*$ $forall ninmathbb{N}$?



Then the statement follows from the weak continuity of $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ (?)










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Is it intended that you first write $B(w,u)$ and then $B(u_n,v)$? Or did you swap the two variables by any chance?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • This is the way it is written in my exercise. So I think it is intended to be like this @LorenzoQuarisa
    – user3766553
    2 days ago










  • $Omega$ is bounded, right? Because otherwise for $h(x)=1$ the integral defining $left langle B(w,u),vrightrangle$ might fail to converge
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • Actually there is no information about $Omega$ in my exercise. But is my idea right? When $B(u_n, v)in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega ))^*$ $forall nin mathbb{N}$ it holds that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n-urangle to 0$?
    – user3766553
    yesterday












  • No, it does not. You need some information on the map $u_nmapsto B(u_n,v)$. A priori, it could be that this dependance makes the evaluation $left langle B(u_n,v),u_n-urightrangle$ blow-up even if $left langle F,u_n-urightrangle$ for all $Fin W_0^{1,p}(Omega)^*$. I think you need to work on the specific expression of $B(w,v)$ here. I tried myself and was not able to solve it, probably because I don't know how to use the condition that $u,vin W_0^{1,p}$ rather than just $W^{1,p}$. Any ideas on that?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    yesterday
















3












3








3








Let $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$, $u_n rightharpoonup u in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$ and $B$ be an operator on $(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))times(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.



B is defined by $$langle B(w,u), vrangle := int_Omega ||nabla u - h(w)||^{p-2}(nabla u - h(w))nabla v dx,$$ where $h:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}^n$ is continuous and bounded.



I want to show that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n -urangle to 0$ where $vin (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.




Is it right, that I just have to show that $B(u_n, v)in(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))^*$ $forall ninmathbb{N}$?



Then the statement follows from the weak continuity of $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ (?)










share|cite|improve this question














Let $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$, $u_n rightharpoonup u in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$ and $B$ be an operator on $(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))times(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.



B is defined by $$langle B(w,u), vrangle := int_Omega ||nabla u - h(w)||^{p-2}(nabla u - h(w))nabla v dx,$$ where $h:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}^n$ is continuous and bounded.



I want to show that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n -urangle to 0$ where $vin (W^{1,p}_0(Omega))$.




Is it right, that I just have to show that $B(u_n, v)in(W^{1,p}_0(Omega))^*$ $forall ninmathbb{N}$?



Then the statement follows from the weak continuity of $(u_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ (?)







functional-analysis differential-equations convergence sobolev-spaces weak-convergence






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 2 days ago









user3766553user3766553

465




465












  • Is it intended that you first write $B(w,u)$ and then $B(u_n,v)$? Or did you swap the two variables by any chance?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • This is the way it is written in my exercise. So I think it is intended to be like this @LorenzoQuarisa
    – user3766553
    2 days ago










  • $Omega$ is bounded, right? Because otherwise for $h(x)=1$ the integral defining $left langle B(w,u),vrightrangle$ might fail to converge
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • Actually there is no information about $Omega$ in my exercise. But is my idea right? When $B(u_n, v)in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega ))^*$ $forall nin mathbb{N}$ it holds that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n-urangle to 0$?
    – user3766553
    yesterday












  • No, it does not. You need some information on the map $u_nmapsto B(u_n,v)$. A priori, it could be that this dependance makes the evaluation $left langle B(u_n,v),u_n-urightrangle$ blow-up even if $left langle F,u_n-urightrangle$ for all $Fin W_0^{1,p}(Omega)^*$. I think you need to work on the specific expression of $B(w,v)$ here. I tried myself and was not able to solve it, probably because I don't know how to use the condition that $u,vin W_0^{1,p}$ rather than just $W^{1,p}$. Any ideas on that?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    yesterday




















  • Is it intended that you first write $B(w,u)$ and then $B(u_n,v)$? Or did you swap the two variables by any chance?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • This is the way it is written in my exercise. So I think it is intended to be like this @LorenzoQuarisa
    – user3766553
    2 days ago










  • $Omega$ is bounded, right? Because otherwise for $h(x)=1$ the integral defining $left langle B(w,u),vrightrangle$ might fail to converge
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    2 days ago










  • Actually there is no information about $Omega$ in my exercise. But is my idea right? When $B(u_n, v)in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega ))^*$ $forall nin mathbb{N}$ it holds that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n-urangle to 0$?
    – user3766553
    yesterday












  • No, it does not. You need some information on the map $u_nmapsto B(u_n,v)$. A priori, it could be that this dependance makes the evaluation $left langle B(u_n,v),u_n-urightrangle$ blow-up even if $left langle F,u_n-urightrangle$ for all $Fin W_0^{1,p}(Omega)^*$. I think you need to work on the specific expression of $B(w,v)$ here. I tried myself and was not able to solve it, probably because I don't know how to use the condition that $u,vin W_0^{1,p}$ rather than just $W^{1,p}$. Any ideas on that?
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    yesterday


















Is it intended that you first write $B(w,u)$ and then $B(u_n,v)$? Or did you swap the two variables by any chance?
– Lorenzo Quarisa
2 days ago




Is it intended that you first write $B(w,u)$ and then $B(u_n,v)$? Or did you swap the two variables by any chance?
– Lorenzo Quarisa
2 days ago












This is the way it is written in my exercise. So I think it is intended to be like this @LorenzoQuarisa
– user3766553
2 days ago




This is the way it is written in my exercise. So I think it is intended to be like this @LorenzoQuarisa
– user3766553
2 days ago












$Omega$ is bounded, right? Because otherwise for $h(x)=1$ the integral defining $left langle B(w,u),vrightrangle$ might fail to converge
– Lorenzo Quarisa
2 days ago




$Omega$ is bounded, right? Because otherwise for $h(x)=1$ the integral defining $left langle B(w,u),vrightrangle$ might fail to converge
– Lorenzo Quarisa
2 days ago












Actually there is no information about $Omega$ in my exercise. But is my idea right? When $B(u_n, v)in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega ))^*$ $forall nin mathbb{N}$ it holds that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n-urangle to 0$?
– user3766553
yesterday






Actually there is no information about $Omega$ in my exercise. But is my idea right? When $B(u_n, v)in (W^{1,p}_0(Omega ))^*$ $forall nin mathbb{N}$ it holds that $langle B(u_n, v), u_n-urangle to 0$?
– user3766553
yesterday














No, it does not. You need some information on the map $u_nmapsto B(u_n,v)$. A priori, it could be that this dependance makes the evaluation $left langle B(u_n,v),u_n-urightrangle$ blow-up even if $left langle F,u_n-urightrangle$ for all $Fin W_0^{1,p}(Omega)^*$. I think you need to work on the specific expression of $B(w,v)$ here. I tried myself and was not able to solve it, probably because I don't know how to use the condition that $u,vin W_0^{1,p}$ rather than just $W^{1,p}$. Any ideas on that?
– Lorenzo Quarisa
yesterday






No, it does not. You need some information on the map $u_nmapsto B(u_n,v)$. A priori, it could be that this dependance makes the evaluation $left langle B(u_n,v),u_n-urightrangle$ blow-up even if $left langle F,u_n-urightrangle$ for all $Fin W_0^{1,p}(Omega)^*$. I think you need to work on the specific expression of $B(w,v)$ here. I tried myself and was not able to solve it, probably because I don't know how to use the condition that $u,vin W_0^{1,p}$ rather than just $W^{1,p}$. Any ideas on that?
– Lorenzo Quarisa
yesterday












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