On the residues of $f(z)=(z-z_0)^{-n}$
Define $f_{n}(z)=(z-z_0)^{-n}$ where $n$ is a positive integer. Notice that $f_n$ has a pole of order $n$ at $z=z_0$, for every positive integer $n$.
My question: Does $f$ has residue $0$ at $z=z_0$ for every positive integer $n$?
Unless i'm mistaken, this seems to be the case, since
$frac{1}{(n-1)!}frac{d^{n} f}{dz^{n}} (z-z_0)^n (z-z_0)^{-n}=0$
for every positive integer $n.$
complex-analysis residue-calculus
New contributor
add a comment |
Define $f_{n}(z)=(z-z_0)^{-n}$ where $n$ is a positive integer. Notice that $f_n$ has a pole of order $n$ at $z=z_0$, for every positive integer $n$.
My question: Does $f$ has residue $0$ at $z=z_0$ for every positive integer $n$?
Unless i'm mistaken, this seems to be the case, since
$frac{1}{(n-1)!}frac{d^{n} f}{dz^{n}} (z-z_0)^n (z-z_0)^{-n}=0$
for every positive integer $n.$
complex-analysis residue-calculus
New contributor
There will be a non-zero residue for $n = 1$, and a zero residue for all other integers $n$.
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
1
The formula to compute the residue at an $n$th order pole is $$ operatorname{Res}(f,z_0) = frac{1}{(n-1)!} lim_{z to z_0} frac{d^{n-1}}{dz^{n-1}} left( (z-z_0)^n f(z) right) $$ note that for $n=1$, we're taking a "zeroeth derivative"
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
add a comment |
Define $f_{n}(z)=(z-z_0)^{-n}$ where $n$ is a positive integer. Notice that $f_n$ has a pole of order $n$ at $z=z_0$, for every positive integer $n$.
My question: Does $f$ has residue $0$ at $z=z_0$ for every positive integer $n$?
Unless i'm mistaken, this seems to be the case, since
$frac{1}{(n-1)!}frac{d^{n} f}{dz^{n}} (z-z_0)^n (z-z_0)^{-n}=0$
for every positive integer $n.$
complex-analysis residue-calculus
New contributor
Define $f_{n}(z)=(z-z_0)^{-n}$ where $n$ is a positive integer. Notice that $f_n$ has a pole of order $n$ at $z=z_0$, for every positive integer $n$.
My question: Does $f$ has residue $0$ at $z=z_0$ for every positive integer $n$?
Unless i'm mistaken, this seems to be the case, since
$frac{1}{(n-1)!}frac{d^{n} f}{dz^{n}} (z-z_0)^n (z-z_0)^{-n}=0$
for every positive integer $n.$
complex-analysis residue-calculus
complex-analysis residue-calculus
New contributor
New contributor
edited 2 days ago
user632013
New contributor
asked 2 days ago
user632013user632013
12
12
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There will be a non-zero residue for $n = 1$, and a zero residue for all other integers $n$.
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
1
The formula to compute the residue at an $n$th order pole is $$ operatorname{Res}(f,z_0) = frac{1}{(n-1)!} lim_{z to z_0} frac{d^{n-1}}{dz^{n-1}} left( (z-z_0)^n f(z) right) $$ note that for $n=1$, we're taking a "zeroeth derivative"
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
add a comment |
There will be a non-zero residue for $n = 1$, and a zero residue for all other integers $n$.
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
1
The formula to compute the residue at an $n$th order pole is $$ operatorname{Res}(f,z_0) = frac{1}{(n-1)!} lim_{z to z_0} frac{d^{n-1}}{dz^{n-1}} left( (z-z_0)^n f(z) right) $$ note that for $n=1$, we're taking a "zeroeth derivative"
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
There will be a non-zero residue for $n = 1$, and a zero residue for all other integers $n$.
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
There will be a non-zero residue for $n = 1$, and a zero residue for all other integers $n$.
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
1
1
The formula to compute the residue at an $n$th order pole is $$ operatorname{Res}(f,z_0) = frac{1}{(n-1)!} lim_{z to z_0} frac{d^{n-1}}{dz^{n-1}} left( (z-z_0)^n f(z) right) $$ note that for $n=1$, we're taking a "zeroeth derivative"
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
The formula to compute the residue at an $n$th order pole is $$ operatorname{Res}(f,z_0) = frac{1}{(n-1)!} lim_{z to z_0} frac{d^{n-1}}{dz^{n-1}} left( (z-z_0)^n f(z) right) $$ note that for $n=1$, we're taking a "zeroeth derivative"
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
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No. The residue is $1$ if $n=1$ (and $0$ on all other cases). Your formula is wrong. It should have $dfrac{mathrm d^{n-1}f}{mathrm dx^{n-1}}$ instead of $dfrac{mathrm d^nf}{mathrm dx^n}$.
Oh, that was a typo, anyway thanks.
– user632013
2 days ago
@user632013 If my answer was useful perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
add a comment |
The residue at a point $z_0$ of some function it is just the coefficient $c_{-1}$ of the Laurent expansion of the function around $z_0$. A Laurent expansion in an annulus around $z=z_0$ for some function $g$ have the form
$$g(z):=sum_{kinBbb Z} c_k (z-z_0)^k$$
In your case $f_n$ is already in the form of a Laurent series around $z_0$ such that $c_k=0$ for all $kneq -n$ and $c_{-n}=1$. Then $f_n$ have residue zero at $z_0$ for each $nneq 1$, and for $f_1$ we have that $c_{-1}=1$, so the residue of $f_1$ at $z_0$ is $1$.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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No. The residue is $1$ if $n=1$ (and $0$ on all other cases). Your formula is wrong. It should have $dfrac{mathrm d^{n-1}f}{mathrm dx^{n-1}}$ instead of $dfrac{mathrm d^nf}{mathrm dx^n}$.
Oh, that was a typo, anyway thanks.
– user632013
2 days ago
@user632013 If my answer was useful perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
add a comment |
No. The residue is $1$ if $n=1$ (and $0$ on all other cases). Your formula is wrong. It should have $dfrac{mathrm d^{n-1}f}{mathrm dx^{n-1}}$ instead of $dfrac{mathrm d^nf}{mathrm dx^n}$.
Oh, that was a typo, anyway thanks.
– user632013
2 days ago
@user632013 If my answer was useful perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
add a comment |
No. The residue is $1$ if $n=1$ (and $0$ on all other cases). Your formula is wrong. It should have $dfrac{mathrm d^{n-1}f}{mathrm dx^{n-1}}$ instead of $dfrac{mathrm d^nf}{mathrm dx^n}$.
No. The residue is $1$ if $n=1$ (and $0$ on all other cases). Your formula is wrong. It should have $dfrac{mathrm d^{n-1}f}{mathrm dx^{n-1}}$ instead of $dfrac{mathrm d^nf}{mathrm dx^n}$.
answered 2 days ago
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
152k22123226
152k22123226
Oh, that was a typo, anyway thanks.
– user632013
2 days ago
@user632013 If my answer was useful perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
add a comment |
Oh, that was a typo, anyway thanks.
– user632013
2 days ago
@user632013 If my answer was useful perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
Oh, that was a typo, anyway thanks.
– user632013
2 days ago
Oh, that was a typo, anyway thanks.
– user632013
2 days ago
@user632013 If my answer was useful perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
@user632013 If my answer was useful perhaps that you could mark it as the accepted one.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
add a comment |
The residue at a point $z_0$ of some function it is just the coefficient $c_{-1}$ of the Laurent expansion of the function around $z_0$. A Laurent expansion in an annulus around $z=z_0$ for some function $g$ have the form
$$g(z):=sum_{kinBbb Z} c_k (z-z_0)^k$$
In your case $f_n$ is already in the form of a Laurent series around $z_0$ such that $c_k=0$ for all $kneq -n$ and $c_{-n}=1$. Then $f_n$ have residue zero at $z_0$ for each $nneq 1$, and for $f_1$ we have that $c_{-1}=1$, so the residue of $f_1$ at $z_0$ is $1$.
add a comment |
The residue at a point $z_0$ of some function it is just the coefficient $c_{-1}$ of the Laurent expansion of the function around $z_0$. A Laurent expansion in an annulus around $z=z_0$ for some function $g$ have the form
$$g(z):=sum_{kinBbb Z} c_k (z-z_0)^k$$
In your case $f_n$ is already in the form of a Laurent series around $z_0$ such that $c_k=0$ for all $kneq -n$ and $c_{-n}=1$. Then $f_n$ have residue zero at $z_0$ for each $nneq 1$, and for $f_1$ we have that $c_{-1}=1$, so the residue of $f_1$ at $z_0$ is $1$.
add a comment |
The residue at a point $z_0$ of some function it is just the coefficient $c_{-1}$ of the Laurent expansion of the function around $z_0$. A Laurent expansion in an annulus around $z=z_0$ for some function $g$ have the form
$$g(z):=sum_{kinBbb Z} c_k (z-z_0)^k$$
In your case $f_n$ is already in the form of a Laurent series around $z_0$ such that $c_k=0$ for all $kneq -n$ and $c_{-n}=1$. Then $f_n$ have residue zero at $z_0$ for each $nneq 1$, and for $f_1$ we have that $c_{-1}=1$, so the residue of $f_1$ at $z_0$ is $1$.
The residue at a point $z_0$ of some function it is just the coefficient $c_{-1}$ of the Laurent expansion of the function around $z_0$. A Laurent expansion in an annulus around $z=z_0$ for some function $g$ have the form
$$g(z):=sum_{kinBbb Z} c_k (z-z_0)^k$$
In your case $f_n$ is already in the form of a Laurent series around $z_0$ such that $c_k=0$ for all $kneq -n$ and $c_{-n}=1$. Then $f_n$ have residue zero at $z_0$ for each $nneq 1$, and for $f_1$ we have that $c_{-1}=1$, so the residue of $f_1$ at $z_0$ is $1$.
answered 2 days ago
MasacrosoMasacroso
13k41746
13k41746
add a comment |
add a comment |
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There will be a non-zero residue for $n = 1$, and a zero residue for all other integers $n$.
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago
1
The formula to compute the residue at an $n$th order pole is $$ operatorname{Res}(f,z_0) = frac{1}{(n-1)!} lim_{z to z_0} frac{d^{n-1}}{dz^{n-1}} left( (z-z_0)^n f(z) right) $$ note that for $n=1$, we're taking a "zeroeth derivative"
– Omnomnomnom
2 days ago