Showing that the function $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x$ is Lipschitz












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I wanted to show that $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x$ sastisfy Lipschitz conditions. but I can't separate it to $L|y_1-y_2|$.





According to my lecturer, the Lipschitz condition should be $$|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)|le L|y2-y1|$$
I was able show that $x^2+y^2$ in the rectangle $|x|le a$, $|y|le b$ satisfies the Lipschitz condition, with my $L=2b$. But I had problem showing this for $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x $.










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    $begingroup$
    Do you want Lipschitz in $y$ or Lipschitz in both variables?
    $endgroup$
    – Jose27
    Apr 4 '15 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    according to my lecturer. the Lipschitz condition \f(x,y1)-f(x,y2)\<=Ly2-y1. I was able show that x^2+y^2 in the rectangle x<=a y<=b sastisfy the Lipschitz condition, with my L=2b. but I had problem showing f(x,y)=xsiny+ycosx
    $endgroup$
    – James Anyanwu
    Apr 4 '15 at 6:52
















1












$begingroup$


I wanted to show that $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x$ sastisfy Lipschitz conditions. but I can't separate it to $L|y_1-y_2|$.





According to my lecturer, the Lipschitz condition should be $$|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)|le L|y2-y1|$$
I was able show that $x^2+y^2$ in the rectangle $|x|le a$, $|y|le b$ satisfies the Lipschitz condition, with my $L=2b$. But I had problem showing this for $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x $.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Do you want Lipschitz in $y$ or Lipschitz in both variables?
    $endgroup$
    – Jose27
    Apr 4 '15 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    according to my lecturer. the Lipschitz condition \f(x,y1)-f(x,y2)\<=Ly2-y1. I was able show that x^2+y^2 in the rectangle x<=a y<=b sastisfy the Lipschitz condition, with my L=2b. but I had problem showing f(x,y)=xsiny+ycosx
    $endgroup$
    – James Anyanwu
    Apr 4 '15 at 6:52














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I wanted to show that $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x$ sastisfy Lipschitz conditions. but I can't separate it to $L|y_1-y_2|$.





According to my lecturer, the Lipschitz condition should be $$|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)|le L|y2-y1|$$
I was able show that $x^2+y^2$ in the rectangle $|x|le a$, $|y|le b$ satisfies the Lipschitz condition, with my $L=2b$. But I had problem showing this for $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x $.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I wanted to show that $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x$ sastisfy Lipschitz conditions. but I can't separate it to $L|y_1-y_2|$.





According to my lecturer, the Lipschitz condition should be $$|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)|le L|y2-y1|$$
I was able show that $x^2+y^2$ in the rectangle $|x|le a$, $|y|le b$ satisfies the Lipschitz condition, with my $L=2b$. But I had problem showing this for $f(x,y)=xsin y+ycos x $.







real-analysis lipschitz-functions






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edited Apr 5 '15 at 2:44







user147263

















asked Apr 4 '15 at 5:44









James AnyanwuJames Anyanwu

61




61








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Do you want Lipschitz in $y$ or Lipschitz in both variables?
    $endgroup$
    – Jose27
    Apr 4 '15 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    according to my lecturer. the Lipschitz condition \f(x,y1)-f(x,y2)\<=Ly2-y1. I was able show that x^2+y^2 in the rectangle x<=a y<=b sastisfy the Lipschitz condition, with my L=2b. but I had problem showing f(x,y)=xsiny+ycosx
    $endgroup$
    – James Anyanwu
    Apr 4 '15 at 6:52














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Do you want Lipschitz in $y$ or Lipschitz in both variables?
    $endgroup$
    – Jose27
    Apr 4 '15 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    according to my lecturer. the Lipschitz condition \f(x,y1)-f(x,y2)\<=Ly2-y1. I was able show that x^2+y^2 in the rectangle x<=a y<=b sastisfy the Lipschitz condition, with my L=2b. but I had problem showing f(x,y)=xsiny+ycosx
    $endgroup$
    – James Anyanwu
    Apr 4 '15 at 6:52








3




3




$begingroup$
Do you want Lipschitz in $y$ or Lipschitz in both variables?
$endgroup$
– Jose27
Apr 4 '15 at 5:51




$begingroup$
Do you want Lipschitz in $y$ or Lipschitz in both variables?
$endgroup$
– Jose27
Apr 4 '15 at 5:51












$begingroup$
according to my lecturer. the Lipschitz condition \f(x,y1)-f(x,y2)\<=Ly2-y1. I was able show that x^2+y^2 in the rectangle x<=a y<=b sastisfy the Lipschitz condition, with my L=2b. but I had problem showing f(x,y)=xsiny+ycosx
$endgroup$
– James Anyanwu
Apr 4 '15 at 6:52




$begingroup$
according to my lecturer. the Lipschitz condition \f(x,y1)-f(x,y2)\<=Ly2-y1. I was able show that x^2+y^2 in the rectangle x<=a y<=b sastisfy the Lipschitz condition, with my L=2b. but I had problem showing f(x,y)=xsiny+ycosx
$endgroup$
– James Anyanwu
Apr 4 '15 at 6:52










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It seems that you want to prove that $f$ is Lipschitz with respect to $y$. When $f$ is viewed as a global function $f:>{mathbb R}^2to{mathbb R}$ the statement is wrong, because
$$left|{fbigl(x,{piover 2}bigr)-f(x,0)over {piover2}}right|geq |x|-{piover2}$$
assumes arbitrarily large values. The function $f$ is, however, locally Lipschitz with respect to $y$ in ${mathbb R}^2$. This means that any point $(x_0,y_0)$ has a neighborhood $W$ whithin which the Lipschitz condition is fulfilled. In order to see this it is sufficient to note that $fin C^1({mathbb R}^2)$, but maybe you want a selfcontained proof.



From
$${partial f(x,y)overpartial y}= xcos y+cos x$$
it follows that $bigl|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}bigr|leq |x|+1$. Therefore any point $(x_0,y_0)$ is the center of a quite large window $W$ such that for a suitable $M$ one has
$$left|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}right|leq Mqquadforall (x,y)in W .$$
By means of the MVT we then conclude that
$$bigl|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)bigr|leq M>|y_1-y_2|$$
for all $(x,y_1)$, $(x,y_2)in W$.






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    $begingroup$

    It seems that you want to prove that $f$ is Lipschitz with respect to $y$. When $f$ is viewed as a global function $f:>{mathbb R}^2to{mathbb R}$ the statement is wrong, because
    $$left|{fbigl(x,{piover 2}bigr)-f(x,0)over {piover2}}right|geq |x|-{piover2}$$
    assumes arbitrarily large values. The function $f$ is, however, locally Lipschitz with respect to $y$ in ${mathbb R}^2$. This means that any point $(x_0,y_0)$ has a neighborhood $W$ whithin which the Lipschitz condition is fulfilled. In order to see this it is sufficient to note that $fin C^1({mathbb R}^2)$, but maybe you want a selfcontained proof.



    From
    $${partial f(x,y)overpartial y}= xcos y+cos x$$
    it follows that $bigl|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}bigr|leq |x|+1$. Therefore any point $(x_0,y_0)$ is the center of a quite large window $W$ such that for a suitable $M$ one has
    $$left|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}right|leq Mqquadforall (x,y)in W .$$
    By means of the MVT we then conclude that
    $$bigl|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)bigr|leq M>|y_1-y_2|$$
    for all $(x,y_1)$, $(x,y_2)in W$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      0












      $begingroup$

      It seems that you want to prove that $f$ is Lipschitz with respect to $y$. When $f$ is viewed as a global function $f:>{mathbb R}^2to{mathbb R}$ the statement is wrong, because
      $$left|{fbigl(x,{piover 2}bigr)-f(x,0)over {piover2}}right|geq |x|-{piover2}$$
      assumes arbitrarily large values. The function $f$ is, however, locally Lipschitz with respect to $y$ in ${mathbb R}^2$. This means that any point $(x_0,y_0)$ has a neighborhood $W$ whithin which the Lipschitz condition is fulfilled. In order to see this it is sufficient to note that $fin C^1({mathbb R}^2)$, but maybe you want a selfcontained proof.



      From
      $${partial f(x,y)overpartial y}= xcos y+cos x$$
      it follows that $bigl|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}bigr|leq |x|+1$. Therefore any point $(x_0,y_0)$ is the center of a quite large window $W$ such that for a suitable $M$ one has
      $$left|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}right|leq Mqquadforall (x,y)in W .$$
      By means of the MVT we then conclude that
      $$bigl|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)bigr|leq M>|y_1-y_2|$$
      for all $(x,y_1)$, $(x,y_2)in W$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        $begingroup$

        It seems that you want to prove that $f$ is Lipschitz with respect to $y$. When $f$ is viewed as a global function $f:>{mathbb R}^2to{mathbb R}$ the statement is wrong, because
        $$left|{fbigl(x,{piover 2}bigr)-f(x,0)over {piover2}}right|geq |x|-{piover2}$$
        assumes arbitrarily large values. The function $f$ is, however, locally Lipschitz with respect to $y$ in ${mathbb R}^2$. This means that any point $(x_0,y_0)$ has a neighborhood $W$ whithin which the Lipschitz condition is fulfilled. In order to see this it is sufficient to note that $fin C^1({mathbb R}^2)$, but maybe you want a selfcontained proof.



        From
        $${partial f(x,y)overpartial y}= xcos y+cos x$$
        it follows that $bigl|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}bigr|leq |x|+1$. Therefore any point $(x_0,y_0)$ is the center of a quite large window $W$ such that for a suitable $M$ one has
        $$left|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}right|leq Mqquadforall (x,y)in W .$$
        By means of the MVT we then conclude that
        $$bigl|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)bigr|leq M>|y_1-y_2|$$
        for all $(x,y_1)$, $(x,y_2)in W$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        It seems that you want to prove that $f$ is Lipschitz with respect to $y$. When $f$ is viewed as a global function $f:>{mathbb R}^2to{mathbb R}$ the statement is wrong, because
        $$left|{fbigl(x,{piover 2}bigr)-f(x,0)over {piover2}}right|geq |x|-{piover2}$$
        assumes arbitrarily large values. The function $f$ is, however, locally Lipschitz with respect to $y$ in ${mathbb R}^2$. This means that any point $(x_0,y_0)$ has a neighborhood $W$ whithin which the Lipschitz condition is fulfilled. In order to see this it is sufficient to note that $fin C^1({mathbb R}^2)$, but maybe you want a selfcontained proof.



        From
        $${partial f(x,y)overpartial y}= xcos y+cos x$$
        it follows that $bigl|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}bigr|leq |x|+1$. Therefore any point $(x_0,y_0)$ is the center of a quite large window $W$ such that for a suitable $M$ one has
        $$left|{partial f(x,y)overpartial y}right|leq Mqquadforall (x,y)in W .$$
        By means of the MVT we then conclude that
        $$bigl|f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)bigr|leq M>|y_1-y_2|$$
        for all $(x,y_1)$, $(x,y_2)in W$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



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        answered Apr 4 '15 at 15:22









        Christian BlatterChristian Blatter

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        172k7113326






























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