$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda$ for complex $f$ with $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$
$begingroup$
Let $f$ be a complex-valued, measurable function defined on $mathbb R$ with $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$
I want to show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$
$(alpha in mathbb R)$
My original attempt was to write $int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda -int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{alpha}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{2pi}f(x)dx=F(alpha+2pi)-F(2pi)-(F(alpha)-F(0))=int_{2pi}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{alpha}f(x)dx=0$
But I think I can't simply write is a Riemann Integral.
How can I show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$ instead?
complex-analysis analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f$ be a complex-valued, measurable function defined on $mathbb R$ with $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$
I want to show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$
$(alpha in mathbb R)$
My original attempt was to write $int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda -int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{alpha}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{2pi}f(x)dx=F(alpha+2pi)-F(2pi)-(F(alpha)-F(0))=int_{2pi}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{alpha}f(x)dx=0$
But I think I can't simply write is a Riemann Integral.
How can I show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$ instead?
complex-analysis analysis
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Simply split $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi] cup [2pi , 2pi+alpha]$.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:04
$begingroup$
How does that help?
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 12 at 16:12
$begingroup$
I post a more detailed answer.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:16
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of An integrable and periodic function $f(x)$ satisfies $int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx=int_{a}^{a+T}f(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:44
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f$ be a complex-valued, measurable function defined on $mathbb R$ with $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$
I want to show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$
$(alpha in mathbb R)$
My original attempt was to write $int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda -int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{alpha}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{2pi}f(x)dx=F(alpha+2pi)-F(2pi)-(F(alpha)-F(0))=int_{2pi}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{alpha}f(x)dx=0$
But I think I can't simply write is a Riemann Integral.
How can I show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$ instead?
complex-analysis analysis
$endgroup$
Let $f$ be a complex-valued, measurable function defined on $mathbb R$ with $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$
I want to show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$
$(alpha in mathbb R)$
My original attempt was to write $int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda -int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{alpha}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{2pi}f(x)dx=F(alpha+2pi)-F(2pi)-(F(alpha)-F(0))=int_{2pi}^{alpha+2pi}f(x)dx-int_{0}^{alpha}f(x)dx=0$
But I think I can't simply write is a Riemann Integral.
How can I show $$int_{[0,2pi]}f dlambda=int_{[alpha,alpha+2pi]}f dlambda $$ instead?
complex-analysis analysis
complex-analysis analysis
asked Jan 12 at 16:03
user626880user626880
204
204
$begingroup$
Simply split $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi] cup [2pi , 2pi+alpha]$.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:04
$begingroup$
How does that help?
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 12 at 16:12
$begingroup$
I post a more detailed answer.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:16
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of An integrable and periodic function $f(x)$ satisfies $int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx=int_{a}^{a+T}f(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:44
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Simply split $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi] cup [2pi , 2pi+alpha]$.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:04
$begingroup$
How does that help?
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 12 at 16:12
$begingroup$
I post a more detailed answer.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:16
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of An integrable and periodic function $f(x)$ satisfies $int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx=int_{a}^{a+T}f(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Simply split $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi] cup [2pi , 2pi+alpha]$.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:04
$begingroup$
Simply split $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi] cup [2pi , 2pi+alpha]$.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:04
$begingroup$
How does that help?
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 12 at 16:12
$begingroup$
How does that help?
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 12 at 16:12
$begingroup$
I post a more detailed answer.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:16
$begingroup$
I post a more detailed answer.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:16
1
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of An integrable and periodic function $f(x)$ satisfies $int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx=int_{a}^{a+T}f(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of An integrable and periodic function $f(x)$ satisfies $int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx=int_{a}^{a+T}f(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:44
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Edit: This proof assumes that $alpha<2pi$. But since $f$ is $2pi$ periodic the function $f$ on $[alpha,2pi+alpha]$ behaves the same as $f$ on $[alpha-2pi,alpha]$ and we can keep removing $2pi$ until $alpha-2mpi<2pi$, then denote $beta=alpha-2mpi$ and argue as below with $beta$ instead of $alpha$:
We can write $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi]cup [2pi,2pi+alpha]$. Since the union is disjoint (up to one element) we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx$$
By assumption $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$ and so by changing variables the second integral becomes
$$int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^alpha f(x+2pi)dx = int_0^alpha f(x)dx$$
Insert to the first equality we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{0}^{alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^{2pi}f(x)dx$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
What if $alpha>2pi$? How do you make sense of the interval $[alpha,2pi]$?
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:37
1
$begingroup$
This would work if, instead of your "$2pi$", you used the (unique) integer multiple of $2pi$ between $alpha$ and $alpha+2pi$.
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
Jan 12 at 16:40
$begingroup$
@user587192 If $alpha>2pi$ then move the entire interval by $2pi$ as many times as needed.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:54
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Edit: This proof assumes that $alpha<2pi$. But since $f$ is $2pi$ periodic the function $f$ on $[alpha,2pi+alpha]$ behaves the same as $f$ on $[alpha-2pi,alpha]$ and we can keep removing $2pi$ until $alpha-2mpi<2pi$, then denote $beta=alpha-2mpi$ and argue as below with $beta$ instead of $alpha$:
We can write $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi]cup [2pi,2pi+alpha]$. Since the union is disjoint (up to one element) we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx$$
By assumption $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$ and so by changing variables the second integral becomes
$$int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^alpha f(x+2pi)dx = int_0^alpha f(x)dx$$
Insert to the first equality we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{0}^{alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^{2pi}f(x)dx$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
What if $alpha>2pi$? How do you make sense of the interval $[alpha,2pi]$?
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:37
1
$begingroup$
This would work if, instead of your "$2pi$", you used the (unique) integer multiple of $2pi$ between $alpha$ and $alpha+2pi$.
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
Jan 12 at 16:40
$begingroup$
@user587192 If $alpha>2pi$ then move the entire interval by $2pi$ as many times as needed.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Edit: This proof assumes that $alpha<2pi$. But since $f$ is $2pi$ periodic the function $f$ on $[alpha,2pi+alpha]$ behaves the same as $f$ on $[alpha-2pi,alpha]$ and we can keep removing $2pi$ until $alpha-2mpi<2pi$, then denote $beta=alpha-2mpi$ and argue as below with $beta$ instead of $alpha$:
We can write $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi]cup [2pi,2pi+alpha]$. Since the union is disjoint (up to one element) we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx$$
By assumption $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$ and so by changing variables the second integral becomes
$$int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^alpha f(x+2pi)dx = int_0^alpha f(x)dx$$
Insert to the first equality we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{0}^{alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^{2pi}f(x)dx$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
What if $alpha>2pi$? How do you make sense of the interval $[alpha,2pi]$?
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:37
1
$begingroup$
This would work if, instead of your "$2pi$", you used the (unique) integer multiple of $2pi$ between $alpha$ and $alpha+2pi$.
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
Jan 12 at 16:40
$begingroup$
@user587192 If $alpha>2pi$ then move the entire interval by $2pi$ as many times as needed.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Edit: This proof assumes that $alpha<2pi$. But since $f$ is $2pi$ periodic the function $f$ on $[alpha,2pi+alpha]$ behaves the same as $f$ on $[alpha-2pi,alpha]$ and we can keep removing $2pi$ until $alpha-2mpi<2pi$, then denote $beta=alpha-2mpi$ and argue as below with $beta$ instead of $alpha$:
We can write $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi]cup [2pi,2pi+alpha]$. Since the union is disjoint (up to one element) we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx$$
By assumption $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$ and so by changing variables the second integral becomes
$$int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^alpha f(x+2pi)dx = int_0^alpha f(x)dx$$
Insert to the first equality we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{0}^{alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^{2pi}f(x)dx$$
$endgroup$
Edit: This proof assumes that $alpha<2pi$. But since $f$ is $2pi$ periodic the function $f$ on $[alpha,2pi+alpha]$ behaves the same as $f$ on $[alpha-2pi,alpha]$ and we can keep removing $2pi$ until $alpha-2mpi<2pi$, then denote $beta=alpha-2mpi$ and argue as below with $beta$ instead of $alpha$:
We can write $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi]cup [2pi,2pi+alpha]$. Since the union is disjoint (up to one element) we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx$$
By assumption $f(x)=f(x+2pi)$ and so by changing variables the second integral becomes
$$int_{2pi}^{2pi+alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^alpha f(x+2pi)dx = int_0^alpha f(x)dx$$
Insert to the first equality we have
$$int_alpha^{alpha+2pi} f(x)dx = int_alpha^{2pi} f(x)dx+int_{0}^{alpha} f(x)dx = int_0^{2pi}f(x)dx$$
edited Jan 12 at 16:57
answered Jan 12 at 16:16
YankoYanko
6,5471528
6,5471528
1
$begingroup$
What if $alpha>2pi$? How do you make sense of the interval $[alpha,2pi]$?
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:37
1
$begingroup$
This would work if, instead of your "$2pi$", you used the (unique) integer multiple of $2pi$ between $alpha$ and $alpha+2pi$.
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
Jan 12 at 16:40
$begingroup$
@user587192 If $alpha>2pi$ then move the entire interval by $2pi$ as many times as needed.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:54
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
What if $alpha>2pi$? How do you make sense of the interval $[alpha,2pi]$?
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:37
1
$begingroup$
This would work if, instead of your "$2pi$", you used the (unique) integer multiple of $2pi$ between $alpha$ and $alpha+2pi$.
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
Jan 12 at 16:40
$begingroup$
@user587192 If $alpha>2pi$ then move the entire interval by $2pi$ as many times as needed.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:54
1
1
$begingroup$
What if $alpha>2pi$? How do you make sense of the interval $[alpha,2pi]$?
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:37
$begingroup$
What if $alpha>2pi$? How do you make sense of the interval $[alpha,2pi]$?
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:37
1
1
$begingroup$
This would work if, instead of your "$2pi$", you used the (unique) integer multiple of $2pi$ between $alpha$ and $alpha+2pi$.
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
Jan 12 at 16:40
$begingroup$
This would work if, instead of your "$2pi$", you used the (unique) integer multiple of $2pi$ between $alpha$ and $alpha+2pi$.
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
Jan 12 at 16:40
$begingroup$
@user587192 If $alpha>2pi$ then move the entire interval by $2pi$ as many times as needed.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:54
$begingroup$
@user587192 If $alpha>2pi$ then move the entire interval by $2pi$ as many times as needed.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:54
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Simply split $[alpha,alpha+2pi] = [alpha,2pi] cup [2pi , 2pi+alpha]$.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:04
$begingroup$
How does that help?
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 12 at 16:12
$begingroup$
I post a more detailed answer.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 12 at 16:16
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of An integrable and periodic function $f(x)$ satisfies $int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx=int_{a}^{a+T}f(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user587192
Jan 12 at 16:44