Is it the case that $|f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})} < infty$ iff $|f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})}^p < infty$ for all $1...












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Is it the case that, for all $1 leq p < infty$, $$|f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})} < infty quad text{if and only if} quad |f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})}^p < infty?$$



When computing $L^p$ norms, I frequently take the norm to the $p$-th power to make the computation/notation simpler. Is this typically acceptable?










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    It indeed holds. I would add $1 leq p < infty$ to be more rigorous if you want a statement.
    – Rebellos
    2 days ago
















0














Is it the case that, for all $1 leq p < infty$, $$|f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})} < infty quad text{if and only if} quad |f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})}^p < infty?$$



When computing $L^p$ norms, I frequently take the norm to the $p$-th power to make the computation/notation simpler. Is this typically acceptable?










share|cite|improve this question









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kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • 1




    It indeed holds. I would add $1 leq p < infty$ to be more rigorous if you want a statement.
    – Rebellos
    2 days ago














0












0








0







Is it the case that, for all $1 leq p < infty$, $$|f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})} < infty quad text{if and only if} quad |f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})}^p < infty?$$



When computing $L^p$ norms, I frequently take the norm to the $p$-th power to make the computation/notation simpler. Is this typically acceptable?










share|cite|improve this question









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kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Is it the case that, for all $1 leq p < infty$, $$|f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})} < infty quad text{if and only if} quad |f|_{L^p (mathbb{R})}^p < infty?$$



When computing $L^p$ norms, I frequently take the norm to the $p$-th power to make the computation/notation simpler. Is this typically acceptable?







lp-spaces






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edited 2 days ago









SvanN

1,8921422




1,8921422






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asked 2 days ago









kkckkc

1308




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  • 1




    It indeed holds. I would add $1 leq p < infty$ to be more rigorous if you want a statement.
    – Rebellos
    2 days ago














  • 1




    It indeed holds. I would add $1 leq p < infty$ to be more rigorous if you want a statement.
    – Rebellos
    2 days ago








1




1




It indeed holds. I would add $1 leq p < infty$ to be more rigorous if you want a statement.
– Rebellos
2 days ago




It indeed holds. I would add $1 leq p < infty$ to be more rigorous if you want a statement.
– Rebellos
2 days ago










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