Real analysis, topology [duplicate]












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  • If A is infinite, does there have to exist a subset of A that is equivalent to A?

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"If a set is equivalent to one of its proper subset then it is infinite set"



I was wondering why can't it be countably infinite? Since $mathbb{Z} sim mathbb{N} sim mathbb{Z}+ rightarrow mathbb{Z}+ sim mathbb{Z}$, $mathbb{Z}$ is countably infinite hence $mathbb{Z}$ is equivalent to its proper subset but Z is countably infinite.. Please correct me where I am getting it wrong










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marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde, KReiser, mrtaurho, Lord Shark the Unknown, José Carlos Santos general-topology
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Jan 8 at 10:57


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















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  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Countably infinite is infinite.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 7 at 20:17










  • $begingroup$
    Hello, you seem to have confused the title field for the tags field. You should think about making your title informative about the question you are asking. I've taken the liberty of providing a better title. Please do something similar in the future.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Jan 7 at 20:18












  • $begingroup$
    It always is true, assuming the axiom of choice, see this duplicate: A set is infinite if it is equivalent to one of its subsets.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 7 at 20:19


















1












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • If A is infinite, does there have to exist a subset of A that is equivalent to A?

    2 answers




"If a set is equivalent to one of its proper subset then it is infinite set"



I was wondering why can't it be countably infinite? Since $mathbb{Z} sim mathbb{N} sim mathbb{Z}+ rightarrow mathbb{Z}+ sim mathbb{Z}$, $mathbb{Z}$ is countably infinite hence $mathbb{Z}$ is equivalent to its proper subset but Z is countably infinite.. Please correct me where I am getting it wrong










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




user626365 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde, KReiser, mrtaurho, Lord Shark the Unknown, José Carlos Santos general-topology
Users with the  general-topology badge can single-handedly close general-topology questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

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Jan 8 at 10:57


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Math.SE! Please use MathJax. For some basic information about writing math at this site see e.g. basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
    $endgroup$
    – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
    Jan 7 at 20:17






  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Countably infinite is infinite.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 7 at 20:17










  • $begingroup$
    Hello, you seem to have confused the title field for the tags field. You should think about making your title informative about the question you are asking. I've taken the liberty of providing a better title. Please do something similar in the future.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Jan 7 at 20:18












  • $begingroup$
    It always is true, assuming the axiom of choice, see this duplicate: A set is infinite if it is equivalent to one of its subsets.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 7 at 20:19
















1












1








1





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • If A is infinite, does there have to exist a subset of A that is equivalent to A?

    2 answers




"If a set is equivalent to one of its proper subset then it is infinite set"



I was wondering why can't it be countably infinite? Since $mathbb{Z} sim mathbb{N} sim mathbb{Z}+ rightarrow mathbb{Z}+ sim mathbb{Z}$, $mathbb{Z}$ is countably infinite hence $mathbb{Z}$ is equivalent to its proper subset but Z is countably infinite.. Please correct me where I am getting it wrong










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




user626365 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • If A is infinite, does there have to exist a subset of A that is equivalent to A?

    2 answers




"If a set is equivalent to one of its proper subset then it is infinite set"



I was wondering why can't it be countably infinite? Since $mathbb{Z} sim mathbb{N} sim mathbb{Z}+ rightarrow mathbb{Z}+ sim mathbb{Z}$, $mathbb{Z}$ is countably infinite hence $mathbb{Z}$ is equivalent to its proper subset but Z is countably infinite.. Please correct me where I am getting it wrong





This question already has an answer here:




  • If A is infinite, does there have to exist a subset of A that is equivalent to A?

    2 answers








real-analysis general-topology






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




user626365 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 7 at 21:17









T. Ford

451111




451111






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asked Jan 7 at 20:16









user626365user626365

61




61




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marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde, KReiser, mrtaurho, Lord Shark the Unknown, José Carlos Santos general-topology
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Jan 8 at 10:57


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde, KReiser, mrtaurho, Lord Shark the Unknown, José Carlos Santos general-topology
Users with the  general-topology badge can single-handedly close general-topology questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

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Jan 8 at 10:57


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Math.SE! Please use MathJax. For some basic information about writing math at this site see e.g. basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
    $endgroup$
    – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
    Jan 7 at 20:17






  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Countably infinite is infinite.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 7 at 20:17










  • $begingroup$
    Hello, you seem to have confused the title field for the tags field. You should think about making your title informative about the question you are asking. I've taken the liberty of providing a better title. Please do something similar in the future.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Jan 7 at 20:18












  • $begingroup$
    It always is true, assuming the axiom of choice, see this duplicate: A set is infinite if it is equivalent to one of its subsets.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 7 at 20:19




















  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Math.SE! Please use MathJax. For some basic information about writing math at this site see e.g. basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
    $endgroup$
    – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
    Jan 7 at 20:17






  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Countably infinite is infinite.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 7 at 20:17










  • $begingroup$
    Hello, you seem to have confused the title field for the tags field. You should think about making your title informative about the question you are asking. I've taken the liberty of providing a better title. Please do something similar in the future.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Jan 7 at 20:18












  • $begingroup$
    It always is true, assuming the axiom of choice, see this duplicate: A set is infinite if it is equivalent to one of its subsets.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 7 at 20:19


















$begingroup$
Welcome to Math.SE! Please use MathJax. For some basic information about writing math at this site see e.g. basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
$endgroup$
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Jan 7 at 20:17




$begingroup$
Welcome to Math.SE! Please use MathJax. For some basic information about writing math at this site see e.g. basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
$endgroup$
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Jan 7 at 20:17




6




6




$begingroup$
Countably infinite is infinite.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 7 at 20:17




$begingroup$
Countably infinite is infinite.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 7 at 20:17












$begingroup$
Hello, you seem to have confused the title field for the tags field. You should think about making your title informative about the question you are asking. I've taken the liberty of providing a better title. Please do something similar in the future.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Jan 7 at 20:18






$begingroup$
Hello, you seem to have confused the title field for the tags field. You should think about making your title informative about the question you are asking. I've taken the liberty of providing a better title. Please do something similar in the future.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Jan 7 at 20:18














$begingroup$
It always is true, assuming the axiom of choice, see this duplicate: A set is infinite if it is equivalent to one of its subsets.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 7 at 20:19






$begingroup$
It always is true, assuming the axiom of choice, see this duplicate: A set is infinite if it is equivalent to one of its subsets.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 7 at 20:19












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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4












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There is no contradiction. Countable infinity is just a special kind of infinity.






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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thank you .got it!
    $endgroup$
    – user626365
    Jan 7 at 20:37










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    You can accept the answer if it helped you. This will gain you (and me as well) rep, which enables perks on the site.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 7 at 20:59


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

There is no contradiction. Countable infinity is just a special kind of infinity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thank you .got it!
    $endgroup$
    – user626365
    Jan 7 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    You can accept the answer if it helped you. This will gain you (and me as well) rep, which enables perks on the site.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 7 at 20:59
















4












$begingroup$

There is no contradiction. Countable infinity is just a special kind of infinity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thank you .got it!
    $endgroup$
    – user626365
    Jan 7 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    You can accept the answer if it helped you. This will gain you (and me as well) rep, which enables perks on the site.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 7 at 20:59














4












4








4





$begingroup$

There is no contradiction. Countable infinity is just a special kind of infinity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



There is no contradiction. Countable infinity is just a special kind of infinity.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 7 at 20:28









Math_QEDMath_QED

7,33831450




7,33831450








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thank you .got it!
    $endgroup$
    – user626365
    Jan 7 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    You can accept the answer if it helped you. This will gain you (and me as well) rep, which enables perks on the site.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 7 at 20:59














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thank you .got it!
    $endgroup$
    – user626365
    Jan 7 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    You can accept the answer if it helped you. This will gain you (and me as well) rep, which enables perks on the site.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 7 at 20:59








2




2




$begingroup$
Thank you .got it!
$endgroup$
– user626365
Jan 7 at 20:37




$begingroup$
Thank you .got it!
$endgroup$
– user626365
Jan 7 at 20:37












$begingroup$
You can accept the answer if it helped you. This will gain you (and me as well) rep, which enables perks on the site.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 7 at 20:59




$begingroup$
You can accept the answer if it helped you. This will gain you (and me as well) rep, which enables perks on the site.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 7 at 20:59



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