Notation: gradient as vector field












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Consider the tangent space $T_pmathbb{R}^n$, and suppose ${big(frac{partial }{partial x^i}big)_p}$ is a basis. So my textbook says that the gradient of a function $f$, $fin C^infty(U)$, $Usubseteqmathbb{R}^n$ with $U$ open, is defined to be: $$text{grad}(f):=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x_i}$$ but I am failing to see why it would not be $$:=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}frac{partial }{partial x^i}$$
so that evaluated at $pin U$, we get the gradient vector at $p$.
In other words, how is $frac{partial f}{partial x^i}$ a vector field? Thanks










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    3












    $begingroup$


    Consider the tangent space $T_pmathbb{R}^n$, and suppose ${big(frac{partial }{partial x^i}big)_p}$ is a basis. So my textbook says that the gradient of a function $f$, $fin C^infty(U)$, $Usubseteqmathbb{R}^n$ with $U$ open, is defined to be: $$text{grad}(f):=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x_i}$$ but I am failing to see why it would not be $$:=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}frac{partial }{partial x^i}$$
    so that evaluated at $pin U$, we get the gradient vector at $p$.
    In other words, how is $frac{partial f}{partial x^i}$ a vector field? Thanks










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Consider the tangent space $T_pmathbb{R}^n$, and suppose ${big(frac{partial }{partial x^i}big)_p}$ is a basis. So my textbook says that the gradient of a function $f$, $fin C^infty(U)$, $Usubseteqmathbb{R}^n$ with $U$ open, is defined to be: $$text{grad}(f):=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x_i}$$ but I am failing to see why it would not be $$:=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}frac{partial }{partial x^i}$$
      so that evaluated at $pin U$, we get the gradient vector at $p$.
      In other words, how is $frac{partial f}{partial x^i}$ a vector field? Thanks










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Consider the tangent space $T_pmathbb{R}^n$, and suppose ${big(frac{partial }{partial x^i}big)_p}$ is a basis. So my textbook says that the gradient of a function $f$, $fin C^infty(U)$, $Usubseteqmathbb{R}^n$ with $U$ open, is defined to be: $$text{grad}(f):=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x_i}$$ but I am failing to see why it would not be $$:=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}frac{partial }{partial x^i}$$
      so that evaluated at $pin U$, we get the gradient vector at $p$.
      In other words, how is $frac{partial f}{partial x^i}$ a vector field? Thanks







      differential-geometry smooth-manifolds differential-forms tangent-bundle






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      edited Jan 7 at 19:43







      Ac711

















      asked Jan 7 at 19:23









      Ac711Ac711

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          I agree with your interpretation. Given the conventions I am familiar with,
          $$ nabla f=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}cdotfrac{partial}{partial x^i}.$$
          In this way, $nabla f$ lives in the tangent bundle. The expression
          $$ sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}bigg|_pin mathbb{R}$$
          which is probably not what we want our gradient to be.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            $nablacdotnabla f$ is a sum of second partial derivatives, not a sum of first partial derivatives.
            $endgroup$
            – Neal
            Jan 7 at 20:16










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry you're totally right, not sure why I wrote that :-) Wasn't relevant anyways.
            $endgroup$
            – Antonios-Alexandros Robotis
            Jan 7 at 20:16













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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          I agree with your interpretation. Given the conventions I am familiar with,
          $$ nabla f=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}cdotfrac{partial}{partial x^i}.$$
          In this way, $nabla f$ lives in the tangent bundle. The expression
          $$ sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}bigg|_pin mathbb{R}$$
          which is probably not what we want our gradient to be.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            $nablacdotnabla f$ is a sum of second partial derivatives, not a sum of first partial derivatives.
            $endgroup$
            – Neal
            Jan 7 at 20:16










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry you're totally right, not sure why I wrote that :-) Wasn't relevant anyways.
            $endgroup$
            – Antonios-Alexandros Robotis
            Jan 7 at 20:16


















          1












          $begingroup$

          I agree with your interpretation. Given the conventions I am familiar with,
          $$ nabla f=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}cdotfrac{partial}{partial x^i}.$$
          In this way, $nabla f$ lives in the tangent bundle. The expression
          $$ sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}bigg|_pin mathbb{R}$$
          which is probably not what we want our gradient to be.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            $nablacdotnabla f$ is a sum of second partial derivatives, not a sum of first partial derivatives.
            $endgroup$
            – Neal
            Jan 7 at 20:16










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry you're totally right, not sure why I wrote that :-) Wasn't relevant anyways.
            $endgroup$
            – Antonios-Alexandros Robotis
            Jan 7 at 20:16
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          I agree with your interpretation. Given the conventions I am familiar with,
          $$ nabla f=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}cdotfrac{partial}{partial x^i}.$$
          In this way, $nabla f$ lives in the tangent bundle. The expression
          $$ sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}bigg|_pin mathbb{R}$$
          which is probably not what we want our gradient to be.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          I agree with your interpretation. Given the conventions I am familiar with,
          $$ nabla f=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}cdotfrac{partial}{partial x^i}.$$
          In this way, $nabla f$ lives in the tangent bundle. The expression
          $$ sum_{i=1}^n frac{partial f}{partial x^i}bigg|_pin mathbb{R}$$
          which is probably not what we want our gradient to be.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 7 at 20:17

























          answered Jan 7 at 19:43









          Antonios-Alexandros RobotisAntonios-Alexandros Robotis

          9,71741640




          9,71741640












          • $begingroup$
            $nablacdotnabla f$ is a sum of second partial derivatives, not a sum of first partial derivatives.
            $endgroup$
            – Neal
            Jan 7 at 20:16










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry you're totally right, not sure why I wrote that :-) Wasn't relevant anyways.
            $endgroup$
            – Antonios-Alexandros Robotis
            Jan 7 at 20:16




















          • $begingroup$
            $nablacdotnabla f$ is a sum of second partial derivatives, not a sum of first partial derivatives.
            $endgroup$
            – Neal
            Jan 7 at 20:16










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry you're totally right, not sure why I wrote that :-) Wasn't relevant anyways.
            $endgroup$
            – Antonios-Alexandros Robotis
            Jan 7 at 20:16


















          $begingroup$
          $nablacdotnabla f$ is a sum of second partial derivatives, not a sum of first partial derivatives.
          $endgroup$
          – Neal
          Jan 7 at 20:16




          $begingroup$
          $nablacdotnabla f$ is a sum of second partial derivatives, not a sum of first partial derivatives.
          $endgroup$
          – Neal
          Jan 7 at 20:16












          $begingroup$
          Sorry you're totally right, not sure why I wrote that :-) Wasn't relevant anyways.
          $endgroup$
          – Antonios-Alexandros Robotis
          Jan 7 at 20:16






          $begingroup$
          Sorry you're totally right, not sure why I wrote that :-) Wasn't relevant anyways.
          $endgroup$
          – Antonios-Alexandros Robotis
          Jan 7 at 20:16




















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