Expanding Dirac delta function with Hermite polynomial












4












$begingroup$


My question is related to a formula in this paper



In that paper, they try to expand Dirac delta function $delta(x)$, which has the property
$$
int delta(x)f(x) , dx = f(0),
$$
using Hermite polynomial. So they write



$$
delta(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2}
$$



and get the coefficient $A_n$ by



$$
begin{align}
int H_{2m}(x) delta(x) , dx &= int H_{2m}(x) sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2} \
Rightarrow H_{2m}(0) &= A_m sqrt {pi}4^m (2m)! \
Rightarrow A_m &= frac{(-1)^m}{m! 4^m sqrt{pi}} ~~~~~~~~(H_{2n}(0)=frac{(2n)!(-1)^n}{n!})
end{align}
$$



Usual $delta(x)$ function has property that it equals to zero for $xneq 0$, but $delta(x) rightarrow infty $ for $x=0$



Now following above expansion, if we plug $x=0$ to the formula, we get



$$
begin{align}
delta(0) & = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(0) \
& = sum_{n=0}^{infty} frac{(2n)!}{n!n!4^nsqrt{pi}}
end{align}
$$



But this series converges, so the usual property of $delta(x)$ is not recovered. So my question is, is this expansion for $delta(x)$ valid?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The series you've written diverges - use the explicit bound in the intro of the wiki article on Stirling's approximation to show that there exist a constant $C$ such that the $n$th term in your series is $ge C/sqrt{n},$ at which point divergence to $+infty$ is immediate.
    $endgroup$
    – stochasticboy321
    May 31 '18 at 3:06
















4












$begingroup$


My question is related to a formula in this paper



In that paper, they try to expand Dirac delta function $delta(x)$, which has the property
$$
int delta(x)f(x) , dx = f(0),
$$
using Hermite polynomial. So they write



$$
delta(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2}
$$



and get the coefficient $A_n$ by



$$
begin{align}
int H_{2m}(x) delta(x) , dx &= int H_{2m}(x) sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2} \
Rightarrow H_{2m}(0) &= A_m sqrt {pi}4^m (2m)! \
Rightarrow A_m &= frac{(-1)^m}{m! 4^m sqrt{pi}} ~~~~~~~~(H_{2n}(0)=frac{(2n)!(-1)^n}{n!})
end{align}
$$



Usual $delta(x)$ function has property that it equals to zero for $xneq 0$, but $delta(x) rightarrow infty $ for $x=0$



Now following above expansion, if we plug $x=0$ to the formula, we get



$$
begin{align}
delta(0) & = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(0) \
& = sum_{n=0}^{infty} frac{(2n)!}{n!n!4^nsqrt{pi}}
end{align}
$$



But this series converges, so the usual property of $delta(x)$ is not recovered. So my question is, is this expansion for $delta(x)$ valid?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The series you've written diverges - use the explicit bound in the intro of the wiki article on Stirling's approximation to show that there exist a constant $C$ such that the $n$th term in your series is $ge C/sqrt{n},$ at which point divergence to $+infty$ is immediate.
    $endgroup$
    – stochasticboy321
    May 31 '18 at 3:06














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


My question is related to a formula in this paper



In that paper, they try to expand Dirac delta function $delta(x)$, which has the property
$$
int delta(x)f(x) , dx = f(0),
$$
using Hermite polynomial. So they write



$$
delta(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2}
$$



and get the coefficient $A_n$ by



$$
begin{align}
int H_{2m}(x) delta(x) , dx &= int H_{2m}(x) sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2} \
Rightarrow H_{2m}(0) &= A_m sqrt {pi}4^m (2m)! \
Rightarrow A_m &= frac{(-1)^m}{m! 4^m sqrt{pi}} ~~~~~~~~(H_{2n}(0)=frac{(2n)!(-1)^n}{n!})
end{align}
$$



Usual $delta(x)$ function has property that it equals to zero for $xneq 0$, but $delta(x) rightarrow infty $ for $x=0$



Now following above expansion, if we plug $x=0$ to the formula, we get



$$
begin{align}
delta(0) & = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(0) \
& = sum_{n=0}^{infty} frac{(2n)!}{n!n!4^nsqrt{pi}}
end{align}
$$



But this series converges, so the usual property of $delta(x)$ is not recovered. So my question is, is this expansion for $delta(x)$ valid?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




My question is related to a formula in this paper



In that paper, they try to expand Dirac delta function $delta(x)$, which has the property
$$
int delta(x)f(x) , dx = f(0),
$$
using Hermite polynomial. So they write



$$
delta(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2}
$$



and get the coefficient $A_n$ by



$$
begin{align}
int H_{2m}(x) delta(x) , dx &= int H_{2m}(x) sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2} \
Rightarrow H_{2m}(0) &= A_m sqrt {pi}4^m (2m)! \
Rightarrow A_m &= frac{(-1)^m}{m! 4^m sqrt{pi}} ~~~~~~~~(H_{2n}(0)=frac{(2n)!(-1)^n}{n!})
end{align}
$$



Usual $delta(x)$ function has property that it equals to zero for $xneq 0$, but $delta(x) rightarrow infty $ for $x=0$



Now following above expansion, if we plug $x=0$ to the formula, we get



$$
begin{align}
delta(0) & = sum_{n=0}^{infty}A_n H_{2n}(0) \
& = sum_{n=0}^{infty} frac{(2n)!}{n!n!4^nsqrt{pi}}
end{align}
$$



But this series converges, so the usual property of $delta(x)$ is not recovered. So my question is, is this expansion for $delta(x)$ valid?







dirac-delta






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edited May 31 '18 at 3:48









Michael Hardy

1




1










asked May 31 '18 at 2:36









user42298user42298

18116




18116












  • $begingroup$
    The series you've written diverges - use the explicit bound in the intro of the wiki article on Stirling's approximation to show that there exist a constant $C$ such that the $n$th term in your series is $ge C/sqrt{n},$ at which point divergence to $+infty$ is immediate.
    $endgroup$
    – stochasticboy321
    May 31 '18 at 3:06


















  • $begingroup$
    The series you've written diverges - use the explicit bound in the intro of the wiki article on Stirling's approximation to show that there exist a constant $C$ such that the $n$th term in your series is $ge C/sqrt{n},$ at which point divergence to $+infty$ is immediate.
    $endgroup$
    – stochasticboy321
    May 31 '18 at 3:06
















$begingroup$
The series you've written diverges - use the explicit bound in the intro of the wiki article on Stirling's approximation to show that there exist a constant $C$ such that the $n$th term in your series is $ge C/sqrt{n},$ at which point divergence to $+infty$ is immediate.
$endgroup$
– stochasticboy321
May 31 '18 at 3:06




$begingroup$
The series you've written diverges - use the explicit bound in the intro of the wiki article on Stirling's approximation to show that there exist a constant $C$ such that the $n$th term in your series is $ge C/sqrt{n},$ at which point divergence to $+infty$ is immediate.
$endgroup$
– stochasticboy321
May 31 '18 at 3:06










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Plugging the series into Wolfram Alpha gives us that it diverges, see here. So the expansions seems to be valid. Just a minor thing: it is usually a trap to actually evaluate distributions like the Dirac function, as they are not actually functions and only really make sense under an integral sign. Viewing it as a functional with the property you listed at the top is much more clear and avoids function having infinite values and other weird stuff.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I've just noticed that I mistyped (2n)! to (2n!) in Wolfram when I did convergence test, so it said that the series converges. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – user42298
    May 31 '18 at 3:10



















1












$begingroup$

The value for $N$-th approximation to the delta function at zero turns out to be



$$
frac{1}{sqrt{pi}} frac{(2N+1)!!}{2^N N!}
$$



This can be verified by induction over $N$. The values are quite small, climbing up in a leasurely fashion. For $N=50$ the value is $approx 4.5$.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Plugging the series into Wolfram Alpha gives us that it diverges, see here. So the expansions seems to be valid. Just a minor thing: it is usually a trap to actually evaluate distributions like the Dirac function, as they are not actually functions and only really make sense under an integral sign. Viewing it as a functional with the property you listed at the top is much more clear and avoids function having infinite values and other weird stuff.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I've just noticed that I mistyped (2n)! to (2n!) in Wolfram when I did convergence test, so it said that the series converges. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – user42298
      May 31 '18 at 3:10
















    1












    $begingroup$

    Plugging the series into Wolfram Alpha gives us that it diverges, see here. So the expansions seems to be valid. Just a minor thing: it is usually a trap to actually evaluate distributions like the Dirac function, as they are not actually functions and only really make sense under an integral sign. Viewing it as a functional with the property you listed at the top is much more clear and avoids function having infinite values and other weird stuff.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I've just noticed that I mistyped (2n)! to (2n!) in Wolfram when I did convergence test, so it said that the series converges. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – user42298
      May 31 '18 at 3:10














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Plugging the series into Wolfram Alpha gives us that it diverges, see here. So the expansions seems to be valid. Just a minor thing: it is usually a trap to actually evaluate distributions like the Dirac function, as they are not actually functions and only really make sense under an integral sign. Viewing it as a functional with the property you listed at the top is much more clear and avoids function having infinite values and other weird stuff.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Plugging the series into Wolfram Alpha gives us that it diverges, see here. So the expansions seems to be valid. Just a minor thing: it is usually a trap to actually evaluate distributions like the Dirac function, as they are not actually functions and only really make sense under an integral sign. Viewing it as a functional with the property you listed at the top is much more clear and avoids function having infinite values and other weird stuff.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered May 31 '18 at 2:55









    whpowell96whpowell96

    59115




    59115












    • $begingroup$
      I've just noticed that I mistyped (2n)! to (2n!) in Wolfram when I did convergence test, so it said that the series converges. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – user42298
      May 31 '18 at 3:10


















    • $begingroup$
      I've just noticed that I mistyped (2n)! to (2n!) in Wolfram when I did convergence test, so it said that the series converges. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – user42298
      May 31 '18 at 3:10
















    $begingroup$
    I've just noticed that I mistyped (2n)! to (2n!) in Wolfram when I did convergence test, so it said that the series converges. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – user42298
    May 31 '18 at 3:10




    $begingroup$
    I've just noticed that I mistyped (2n)! to (2n!) in Wolfram when I did convergence test, so it said that the series converges. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – user42298
    May 31 '18 at 3:10











    1












    $begingroup$

    The value for $N$-th approximation to the delta function at zero turns out to be



    $$
    frac{1}{sqrt{pi}} frac{(2N+1)!!}{2^N N!}
    $$



    This can be verified by induction over $N$. The values are quite small, climbing up in a leasurely fashion. For $N=50$ the value is $approx 4.5$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      The value for $N$-th approximation to the delta function at zero turns out to be



      $$
      frac{1}{sqrt{pi}} frac{(2N+1)!!}{2^N N!}
      $$



      This can be verified by induction over $N$. The values are quite small, climbing up in a leasurely fashion. For $N=50$ the value is $approx 4.5$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        The value for $N$-th approximation to the delta function at zero turns out to be



        $$
        frac{1}{sqrt{pi}} frac{(2N+1)!!}{2^N N!}
        $$



        This can be verified by induction over $N$. The values are quite small, climbing up in a leasurely fashion. For $N=50$ the value is $approx 4.5$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The value for $N$-th approximation to the delta function at zero turns out to be



        $$
        frac{1}{sqrt{pi}} frac{(2N+1)!!}{2^N N!}
        $$



        This can be verified by induction over $N$. The values are quite small, climbing up in a leasurely fashion. For $N=50$ the value is $approx 4.5$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 22 at 14:46









        MSMMSM

        111




        111






























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